I would like to know why such settlements should be considered illegal on land that was ceded to Israel vs land that was taken before the '67 conflict.
Or did the outrage only happen when the Arabs & Palestinians (as LL explained) finally realized that they could not wipe out Israel, so had to find other ways of fighting and crying for help after promises were broken
Syria can cede whatever it wants, that doesnt give Israel the right to use the land after ethnically cleansing it from its legal owners, any more than it allows Israel to use the people themselves in slave labor camps. Geneva convention, ever heard of it?
Where were you?Where was the outrage by the Palestinians and Arabs after '67 when Israel started up settlements?
First resolution in 1967 unanimously voted (Yes even the US) called upon Israel to implement Geneva convention protections. Israel failed to do that and started building settlements. The outrage wasnt just by Arabs, it was pretty much unanimous. Not even the US voted against it:
Israel's settlements in Palestine are Illegal.
Security Council Resolution 446, March 22, 1979
"Determines that the policy and practices of Israel in establishing settlements in the Palestinian and other Arab territories occupied since 1967 have no legal validity and constitute a serious obstruction to achieving a comprehensive, just and lasting peace in the Middle East."
Gee, they certainly got that last sentence right!
Gee, they certainly got that last sentence right!
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