Would be really interesting to know the clear origin of the idea that the whistleblower had no first-hand knowledge whatsoever. I know Trump spoke to that effect.
It also shows that the idea first-hand knowledge is even necessary is bullshit, having been an error in how a form was made in conflict with the law. I hate that there are members of the media intentionally producing false narratives.
It was first reported on thefederalist as far as I am aware (I won't link it, they are far right, google it if you want). There was previously a requirement on the disclosure form that said firsthand knowledge was required, but the actual law (title VII) makes no mention of this . The form was changed to remove that requirement just before or just after (not clear) the person submitted their complaint, so all the loonies are screaming deepstate.
I have heard one report that the person used the old form.
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