Originally posted by: jonks
Originally posted by: sdifox
Originally posted by: jonks
Originally posted by: sdifox
The judge can make this kind of rules in his courthouse.
Laws are different.
no, they're not. The threshold question wrt to religious discrimination is not whether something is a rule or a law or an ordinance, it's whether the action in question is "governmental action." A judge's exercise of discretion whether or not to allow particular headgear into a court is undeniably governmental action, as is just about any other act a judge makes while exercising his duties. If he allows yarmulkes but bans headscarves (that do not obscure the face), then there has to be a justifiable reason for that distinction, and I can't think of one. I still haven't seen whether or not yarmulkes or a nun habit would have been allowed.
The rule is no headgear in courtroom. Religion is not mentioned. How does that turn in to discrimination? Are you saying a judge's courthouse audience rule is suddenly law? There is no mention of habits and yarmulkes. In this instance, I would believe they would be barred from the court audience too.
If governmental action has the effect of religious discrimination despite wording that does not mention religion, it can still be violative of the 1st amendment. For ex. Say it's the judge's discretion to pick meals for the jury and he picks pork chops. A jewish jury member says he can't eat that and the judge says "no one is forcing you to. Don't eat if you don't want to." The rule is the judge picks lunches, it doesn't say anything about religion.
Again, rule or law doesn't matter, the threshold question is whether or not there is government action involved. Are you denying that a judge deciding what is permissible in his courtroom is a government action? Once you answer in the affirmative you move on to the question of whether the action has the effect of promoting or inhibiting religion.
Go read Lemon v Kurtzman for more details
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lemon_v._Kurtzman