Originally posted by: dullard
I disagree, a crime can be defined without a law. We all know the definition of murder - to kill someone (yes there are degrees, but lets not complicate it for this discussion). Suppose a country allowed murders. Making murder illegal, can and will reduce the number of murders. Thus some murders were prevented. I do not see your logic that the number of murders will "only increase".
Actually, what you consider a complication is crucial to the discussion. Without the law to define murder and enforce that definition, people would be unable to agree on circumstances and punishment. John and his family might feel that Bob murdered John's brother, while Bob and his family might feel that the killing was self-defense. Without the law to determine what actually happened then hold that determination up against the definition of the law, John might feel compelled to take matters into his own hands for what he considers to be a crime after Bob's family decides that no crime occurred.
However, I did not say that the number of murders would increase. I said the amount of crime would increase. That is a crucial difference. As you see from the example above, without the law, it is impossible for people to determine and agree that a crime had actually occurred. Therefore, the crime of murder did not exist until it was made a crime under the law. Murder occurred prior to, of course, but it was not a crime.
To understand something, you must compare it against nothingness. Because without something, nothing would exist. Does that make sense?