IronWing
No Lifer
- Jul 20, 2001
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Originally posted by: BoberFett
Way to cherry pick data to back up your flawed assertions. :roll:Originally posted by: ironwing
Originally posted by: BoberFett
Bullsht.
NIH Epidemiology of Alcohol Problems in the United States
See table "Historical Trends: 1850-1997". This table shows that consumption rebounded by ~1978. Another NIH publication showed the rebound but not that it surpassed pre-prohibition consumption rates. Since I can't find that table I'll back off of my claim that it never rebounded completely. However, the graph does show prohibition worked.
Edit: Found the table was was thinking of when I wrote my initial statement.
Apparent per capita ethanol consumption, United States, 1850?2002, NIH
The pre-prohibition peak was 2.6 gal/capita in the 1906-1910 period. Post prohibition rates did not pass this mark until 1973. The reason I was looking at this (about a year ago) was that I was wondering if alcohol consumption rate correlated w/ economic growth rates in any way. They don't. The consumption rate also didn't correlate with the unemployment rate.
You chose the highest point (and I'd sure like to know where these figures are from, any data called "Apparent" is suspect) prior to prohibition. Why not use the figures from the period directly prior to prohibition? Wouldn't that be more telling? If you used 1916?1919 at 1.96 gallons per capita, that was surpassed in 1944. People probably didn't have lots of disposable income to spend on liquor during the depression. And how much drinking do you suppose happened during WWII? Then consider that since then consumption was right back to where it was pre-prohibition.
Prohibition stopped nothing. You found one period where it was "apparently" high, and declare that prohibition stopped people from drinking. Your "facts" mean nothing.
Way to ignore the data trends after you pulled a "bullshit" out of your ass.
