RabidMongoose
Lifer
- Aug 14, 2001
- 11,061
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OK then why do you think the Pope had the authority to grant all of South America to Spain or Portugal? Even the parts of it that had not been discovered.
I don't find that are particularly legitimate, but it's about as legitimate as colonialist tendencies. So I consider it a valid claim if colonialist tendencies are considered to be valid claims. Moreover, the Spanish claim is more than just from the Pope. Anything else?
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