RabidMongoose
Lifer
OK then why do you think the Pope had the authority to grant all of South America to Spain or Portugal? Even the parts of it that had not been discovered.
I don't find that are particularly legitimate, but it's about as legitimate as colonialist tendencies. So I consider it a valid claim if colonialist tendencies are considered to be valid claims. Moreover, the Spanish claim is more than just from the Pope. Anything else?
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