Fern
Elite Member
- Sep 30, 2003
- 26,907
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A question I think interesting, yet has largely gone unexplored is if it's (legally) possible for two individuals to engage in a fight and both be (simultaneously) permitted to a claim of self-defense?
I think it is given the standard of a "reasonable person".
We can't know TM's side, but is it possible that he knew GZ had a gun and was following him? Was TM trying to evade GZ and, through error or accident, suddenly came face-to-face with GZ 'reasonably' thinking GZ did so purposefully and with intent to harm him?
If so, under the law he might he be found to have reasonably resorted to self-defense.
At the same time, GZ's version could be truthful thus permitting him self-defense.
Again, the legal standard is a 'reasonable person', not an omniscient or perfect one.
Perspective is key here, and I think it theoretically possible both side's could be reasonable.
Fern
I think it is given the standard of a "reasonable person".
We can't know TM's side, but is it possible that he knew GZ had a gun and was following him? Was TM trying to evade GZ and, through error or accident, suddenly came face-to-face with GZ 'reasonably' thinking GZ did so purposefully and with intent to harm him?
If so, under the law he might he be found to have reasonably resorted to self-defense.
At the same time, GZ's version could be truthful thus permitting him self-defense.
Again, the legal standard is a 'reasonable person', not an omniscient or perfect one.
Perspective is key here, and I think it theoretically possible both side's could be reasonable.
Fern
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