EmperorNero quote:
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do you even remember one of my earlier arguments? you cannot take the bible literally b/c it has too many flaws and contradictions. and in genesis, it says jacob saw god, while in john, it says no one has seen god - those two interpretations are literal interpretations and all I'm saying is that it contradicts each other - I was showing you what the messages were in a literal interpretation and now you're accusing me of taking out of context. >>
Keep asking questions Nero. If you are sincere (as you seem to be), understanding will come. But read John 1 carefully. What John is saying is that no human has seen
God the Father at any time. But the Word/Logos that is the revelation of God the Father/God Unknowable and Unseen
is "God Seen" or the "Father Revealed" in a particular time or a particular place. Compare John 1 with John 14:1-9. The Word is of the same substance as the Father, hence the Word is God.
Consider Genesis 18:1-19:24. Abraham has a running discourse with the LORD, apparently face to face. In context, the LORD is discussing the judgment of Sodom and Gomorrah with Abraham. But, in Genesis 19:24, the Scripture says:
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Then the LORD rained down burning sulphur on Sodom and Gomorrah-- from the LORD out of the heavens >>
(NIV)
The LORD was manifesting in a particular place and time and in human form as he talked to Abraham. This is the "Logos" of God. But the LORD was also omnipresent and "invisible in the heavens."
Consider a quote from
Theophilus of Antioch, an early Christian who lived about 160 A.D. He was writing a letter to a man named
Autolycus. Autolycus was asking questions about the Christian faith. In context, Theophilus is responding to an inquiry where Autolycus challenged Theophilus with this statement:
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You (Theophilus) said that God cannot be contained in a place (for He is everywhere). How do you now say that God walked in Paradise?" >>
Theophilus' response:
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The God and Father of all, indeed, cannot be contained and is not found in a place, for there is no place of His rest; but His Word, through whom He made all things . . . went to the garden in the person of God, and conversed with Adam. . . . The Word, then, being God, and being generated and produced from God, whenever the Father of the universe wills, He sends Him to any place; and the Word, being both heard and seen, is found in a place >>
(Theophilus to Autolycus, circa 160 A.D.)
Theophilus quoted from John 1 to demonstrate that the Word was eternal, that the Word had never been created but had always existed, was in essence the One True God, and was the revealer of the Father.
Compare Theophilus' statement with John 1:1-18, John 14:1-9, Genesis 19:24, and many other passages and you will get the big picture. The eternal "Son of God" is distinct from the Father in that the "Son" is the revelation and clear manifestation of the infinite Father. He is the "Word/Logos", the "Mind" of God. At a particular point in time, this Logos was joined forever with the humanity of one man: Jesus of Nazareth. When the Holy Spirit conceived Jesus in the womb of Mary, the "Word" became "Flesh" and dwelt among us.
This is why the Apostle Paul can say, in Colossians 2:9-10a:
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For in Christ, all the fulness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and you have been given fulness in him . . . >>
(NIV)
These questions are not intrinsically confusing. They have been made so by the endless speculations of faithless men who try to make the God of the Bible fit their religious predispositions rather than simply reading what the Bible really says, however much it stretches our minds, and then deciding for themselves whether they believe it.
Enjoy the Search. Onward and upward.
[Edited for typos]