- Mar 10, 2006
You made a statement that Intel didn't have more than ~4% market share and that Intel processors would not be viable for mobile because of "price."at a loss...
Then, when you are told that Intel had ~25% market share in tablets, you then move the goalposts by saying that Intel shipped them "at a loss."
Which is it? Are Intel chips too expensive to ever gain traction, or is Intel gaining share by selling chips at a loss (implying that OEMs find the "price" attractive enough to use them)?