Originally posted by: conjur
Umm, in 2000, oil prices were about $21/bbl and gas was OVER $1/gallon. Although, oil prices had settled into about $25/bbl at the end of 2001.
Why, yes it would be. And how does that violate my approximate math?
Originally posted by: GoPackGo
When oil was $35 gas was about $1.40
Temporarilly yes. It was also much higher than that too at $35 a barrel. My math was very rough to be simple. Taxes, profits (stations and refineries), delivery, etc are all variable. My point is the same, double one small part of the overall gas price, and it won't shoot from $1.40 to $5.
Originally posted by: dmcowen674
Thank you, you proved my point. We should have been at $3 a long long time ago.
I just stated that if it reaches $70 a barrel, we would be ~$3. So how does that prove your point and how does that mean that when oil was cheaper we should have been at $3?
A better model would look something like this:
P(t) = O(t)*E(t) + T(t)*(P(t)+A) + S(t) + R(t)*O(t)
P(t) is the price of gas over time
O(t) is the oil price as it varies over time.
E(t) is the efficiency of converting oil to gasoline. Lump in the refinery settings and improvements in to this category.
T(t) is the variable tax rate which is usually based on gas price and a constant factor, A.
S(t) is the station profit as a function of time.
R(t) is the refinery profit as a function of time.
I simplified this greatly to:
P(t) ~= O(t)/35+1
So, yes it was a simplification.