I am saying both of these things, so you're simply repeating what I just suggested.
So, let's continue: Say some psychopath intentionally (this means "not accidentally") coerces a person that they know very well to be mentally fragile and unstable into suicide, through very deliberate and very directed verbal and mental abuse. And in no uncertain terms--such that the intent is rather plain as posted or written down.
How is that not the same as intent to murder? Do you think such a person is justified in claiming "well, that was an accident. How was I to know they were some weak person?"
I'm not all that interested if the law goes too far when I ask this question...that's something else. I'm simply addressing your refusal to accept that this probably is a real problem and that your denial is couched in the assumption that adolescence today is anything like the adolescence you experienced. Imagine, then, what your parents think about "the weaklings" that they raised (TVs and Microwaves! lucky spoiled jerks!), and their parents before them (Food, savings, and no War! what a bunch of pussies!), and on, and on...