NikPreviousAcct
No Lifer
- Aug 15, 2000
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Originally posted by: Nik
The use was paid for, just not used by the same person who paid for it. Would you say the same thing about someone who uses your computer? You bought windows but someone else is using your license. Who cares, it was paid for.
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: NuclearNed
Actually, its called "coercion"
I would say that she stole use of the company's equipment and/or services.
The use was paid for, just not used by the same person who paid for it. Would you say the same thing about someone who uses your computer? You bought windows but someone else is using your license. Who cares, it was paid for.
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: NuclearNed
Actually, its called "coercion"
I would say that she stole use of the company's equipment and/or services.
The use was paid for, just not used by the same person who paid for it. Would you say the same thing about someone who uses your computer? You bought windows but someone else is using your license. Who cares, it was paid for.
Originally posted by: Bryophyte
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: NuclearNed
Actually, its called "coercion"
I would say that she stole use of the company's equipment and/or services.
The use was paid for, just not used by the same person who paid for it. Would you say the same thing about someone who uses your computer? You bought windows but someone else is using your license. Who cares, it was paid for.
I have to disagree with you. A Windows license is for a computer, not a user. The membership is very specifically for the person whose name is on the contract, not for use by any person who is holding the card. The contract is, without a doubt, very clear on the issue. She had no right to use the card. Bally's had no right to coerce her into signing a contract, they should have merely followed through on the contract's terms and at the very least banned her from using the facilities.
Originally posted by: LoKe
Tell her to cancel it. If they give her trouble, have her take them to court. They'll throw fee's at her, counter with compensation for pain and suffering. Threaten (though, subtly) to take it to the media, they'll probably offer a settlement. ~_~
Originally posted by: DrPizza
So, if I buy airplane tickets, discover I can't go (emergency), and I gave them to a friend, they would be stealing when they used my tickets??
On second thought, someone will point out, "the ticket is for the seat, not the user" as in the window's license argument. "
Originally posted by: DrPizza
So, if I buy airplane tickets, discover I can't go (emergency), and I gave them to a friend, they would be stealing when they used my tickets??
On second thought, someone will point out, "the ticket is for the seat, not the user" as in the window's license argument.
How about if I joined some theater organization and as a member I got to go to every production for free... Thus, attendance was because I was a member. But, if I decided not to attend, would it be stealing if someone went in my place?
My point is only that it's a pretty gray area before you can really call it stealing. But, letting someone borrow your membership card is misuse of the card and likely is ground to lose your membership. So, person A borrows person B's card. Bally's figures it out. Bally's says to Person A, "Person B is going to lose their membership. However, since you appear to enjoy coming to Bally's, if you purchase your own membership instead of abusing theirs, we'll let person B keep their membership and you'll have your own. Welcome aboard."
QFTOriginally posted by: JRock
Their fault for not catching it sooner.
Edit: You CANNOT force someone into signing a binding contract.
Originally posted by: EMPshockwave82
Stealing is against the law that's for sure. But I cant help but think entrapment or something like it. You cant force someone to sign into a contract that makes it not legally binding. Even giving an ultimatum such as sign this or face legal action. The contract for 3 years that she signed isnt legally binding. I could be wrong.
Originally posted by: Mill
I don't see this as a criminal matter, but rather a civil one. It wasn't as if the service had not been paid for -- it had -- but she used a membership that was not in her name, and likely violates the contract the original owner signed with Bally's. Thus, I think the owner of the pass should either have to pay a fine or have their membership revoked. The second person, however, should NOT have to fulfill the contract.
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: DaShen
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: Kelvrick
How did she sign up for a three year membership and cancel the card and membership? Sounds like she just cancelled the card and now they can take her to collections for the membership she signed up for.
Idiots for the win!
She should have not been stealing in the first place.
But since she didn't do that...
She should have just left, and paid her friend if they cancelled her friends membership.
But since she didn't do that...
She should have just kept the membership for a while and gone through the trouble of cancelling it through Bally's.
What exactly did she steal? They can't coherse her into signing a legally binding contract. That's called *gasp* cohersion.
Originally posted by: Nik
Originally posted by: NuclearNed
Actually, its called "coercion"
I would say that she stole use of the company's equipment and/or services.
The use was paid for, just not used by the same person who paid for it. Would you say the same thing about someone who uses your computer? You bought windows but someone else is using your license. Who cares, it was paid for.
