Lets look at the woolfe9999 assertion, "What is so hard to understand is how you can't condemn an act against Jews in a European country without blaming Israel for it. The people who perpetrated this violence chose to do so; they chose to translate hatred of Israel in anti-semitism; their parents chose to teach them anti-semitism. Israel did not force them to do these things."
The bottom line denial is mainly contained in, Israel did not force them to do such things.
If so, how come why fort did Israel choose to play jack booted thugs on the high seas on Turkish ships? After all, no one forced Israel to do so in its continuing efforts to practice practice religious, racial, and inhumane discrimination against the residents of Gaza. And moreover, the antisemitism in Germany did not occur until after Israel threw the first stone.
Woolfe, you are still confused, once more than one form of discrimination is systematically practiced, we get more of counter discrimination. And your delusion is that Israel gets a free pass without the consequences.
WHY NOT REDUCE ALL FORMS OF RELIGIOUS DISCRIMINATION INSTEAD?
If we want to end religious and racial discrimination?