OutHouse
Lifer
- Jun 5, 2000
- 36,410
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Let the dominos being to fall - time for incest next!
why would you say such a vile thing? are you a child molester?
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Let the dominos being to fall - time for incest next!
polygamists have a long history of cultish sex slavery and horrific mental and physical abuse that is very much a part of their story
It reduces my chances of finding a female partner if some men have multiple partners.
Not really. The list of Federally protected classes is pretty definitive.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protected_class
Oh lordy, here we go with the polygamy argument yet again.
One person, one spouse..............end of story!!!
why would you say such a vile thing? are you a child molester?
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No, it was a jab at the people who claim to be for "marriage EQUALITY" and the "love is love" campaigners.
I don't really have any ideological opposition to polygamy, but I don't see the discrimination at work in polygamy bans that existed with the bans on same-sex marriage. There is no class of citizens enjoying some right that some other class is being denied in this case. If the government can impose speed limits on everybody without being discriminatory, it can certainly legislate number-of-spouse limits.
I could spend several minutes obliterating every one of your stupid posts in this thread, but honestly you won't listen because you're close-minded. So I think it's just easier to say this ... god you're dumb.
I'll say it again, sexual orientation is not a protected class last
It discriminates against the class of married persons based on familial status, which is a federally protected class.
How so? I kind of see what you're saying but I'm not sure it makes sense. They're not being denied the right to get married, they're already married. They're still free to marry another person too, they just have to get divorced first.
Unmarried people are treated differently than married persons - they don't have to get divorced first before they can marry.
Pick two random people on the street and analyze whether they can get married. Note the information you need - age, relation to each other and whether they are already married. Those are the classes of citizens discriminated against by marriage laws. A month ago in some states you would have included gender on that list.
It isn't enough to simply say you can get married. Note that homosexuals were allowed to get married, they just couldn't marry the person they wanted.
I'm not saying we should recognize polygamous marriages, but the question is whether discrimination is justified, because the actual discrimination is definitely there.
Other than the Mormons, you have to go way back in western history to find either state or church sanctioned polygamy. Even that never was strictly legal. Anti-polygamist fervor was a big part of why they fled en masse to Deseret. Holding to polygamy delayed statehood for decades. The practice if not the paperwork has never been 100% suppressed, obviously.
http://historytogo.utah.gov/utah_ch...ssive_era/struggleforstatehoodchronology.html
No, they are not treated differently. Married people can get married, that's how they got married in the first place. What you're saying is that married people can't marry more than one person. Neither can single people.
You can't really compare it to gay marriage. Before it was legalized a woman could marry a man, but a man could not marry a man. However, no one can marry more than one person, not a single person or a married person. No one is being denied something that someone else can do.
I currently own my home (well, the bank does), are you being discriminated against because you can't also buy my house?
The argument for polygamy is not based on discrimination. There are two similar arguments going forward: religious freedom and unnecessary burden.
The religious freedom argument simply states that there are recognised religions in the US that sanction plural marriage, and that to deny them this is an abridgment of their right to practice their religion. They state that the State's reason for doing so can be served in other ways that do not infringe on their rights to practice their religion.
The other argument goes that the State has no compelling reason to deny it. That all the reasons stated are better handled with other laws already. The State should not abridge freedom without a compelling reason.
No, they are not treated differently. Married people can get married, that's how they got married in the first place. What you're saying is that married people can't marry more than one person. Neither can single people.
You can't really compare it to gay marriage. Before it was legalized a woman could marry a man, but a man could not marry a man. However, no one can marry more than one person, not a single person or a married person. No one is being denied something that someone else can do.
I currently own my home (well, the bank does), are you being discriminated against because you can't also buy my house?
Unmarried people are treated differently than married persons - they don't have to get divorced first before they can marry.
Pick two random people on the street and analyze whether they can get married. Note the information you need - age, relation to each other and whether they are already married. Those are the classes of citizens discriminated against by marriage laws. A month ago in some states you would have included gender on that list.
It isn't enough to simply say you can get married. Note that homosexuals were allowed to get married, they just couldn't marry the person they wanted.
I'm not saying we should recognize polygamous marriages, but the question is whether discrimination is justified, because the actual discrimination is definitely there.
But some people are trying to make that argument, Boober and Rob for example. I'm trying to understand how that makes sense, so far I'm not seeing it. I can be persuaded with a rational argument though.
Now if the law prohibited you from purchasing a second house, that would be discrimination based on your status a homeowner and we would turn to the question of whether that was justified, which would be a low threshold test since property owner is not a protected class.
A law needs to be more than nondiscriminatory against a protected class. The state needs a compelling reason to abridge any freedoms.
In the example you states the court would have to ask if there is a compelling reason for the state to limit land ownership. Lacking a compelling reason to do so they would strike down the law.
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No, it was a jab at the people who claim to be for "marriage EQUALITY" and the "love is love" campaigners.
John Doe, a married person, can't marry jane smith. James Doe, an unmarked person can marry Jane Smith. There is no denying it is discrimination. The argument that john die is already married to a person is the rational for the discrimination.
With regard to your house, the government would allow me to have joint title.
Now if the law prohibited you from purchasing a second house, that would be discrimination based on your status a homeowner and we would turn to the question of whether that was justified, which would be a low threshold test since property owner is not a protected class.
Keeping with the marriage equality theme....should Bruce Jenner be able to marry Caitlyn Jenner???