Say you or someone you love has been terribly wronged.
Instead of acting outward in violence (at the possibility of being caught) and lacking in downright evilness factor, can you destroy them through "legal" activities and not get into trouble? I know the individual acts themselves are legal, but the intent or end goal--is that illegal of some sort?
I'd argue its better to destroy someone over time and let them watch their life fall apart rather than to take it out in a few moments. Say you're screwed over/controlled by some slimeballs. You grow in power and resources. You become filthy rich and have means of influence.
-Buy up all the property around their house and destroy it/do something horrible to devalue the neighbourhood so their net worth drops.
-Ruin their local reputation somehow but avoid slander and libel laws.
-Buy up the business they work for and purposely sink it so they are out of a job. You do this repeatedly going from place to place wherever they work and do it to each company (remember, you're a billionaire).
-Make an affair happen with his wife (making it seem accidental but planning to meet her, persuade her, etc over time through carefully calculated means).
-Force them into a position of having to give up things in their life which they love. You buy their childhood home and bulldoze it.
-Being a multibillionaire, you exercise any influence you can on the stocks that they hold to somehow cause them to drop overnight.
-You even orchestrate some big scheme where his children are brought into it. You destroy them in the same way in front of his eyes to further bring him down even more (watching his loved ones fall).
The list could go on and on. You get the point.
If your purpose/intent is to destroy someone like this, would it be illegal somehow ? Are normally legal activities (buying a company) "illegal" if the purpose is malice? (to sink it and put someone out of a job)
I watched the movie Ripleys Game and it made me wonder.
Instead of acting outward in violence (at the possibility of being caught) and lacking in downright evilness factor, can you destroy them through "legal" activities and not get into trouble? I know the individual acts themselves are legal, but the intent or end goal--is that illegal of some sort?
I'd argue its better to destroy someone over time and let them watch their life fall apart rather than to take it out in a few moments. Say you're screwed over/controlled by some slimeballs. You grow in power and resources. You become filthy rich and have means of influence.
-Buy up all the property around their house and destroy it/do something horrible to devalue the neighbourhood so their net worth drops.
-Ruin their local reputation somehow but avoid slander and libel laws.
-Buy up the business they work for and purposely sink it so they are out of a job. You do this repeatedly going from place to place wherever they work and do it to each company (remember, you're a billionaire).
-Make an affair happen with his wife (making it seem accidental but planning to meet her, persuade her, etc over time through carefully calculated means).
-Force them into a position of having to give up things in their life which they love. You buy their childhood home and bulldoze it.
-Being a multibillionaire, you exercise any influence you can on the stocks that they hold to somehow cause them to drop overnight.
-You even orchestrate some big scheme where his children are brought into it. You destroy them in the same way in front of his eyes to further bring him down even more (watching his loved ones fall).
The list could go on and on. You get the point.
If your purpose/intent is to destroy someone like this, would it be illegal somehow ? Are normally legal activities (buying a company) "illegal" if the purpose is malice? (to sink it and put someone out of a job)
I watched the movie Ripleys Game and it made me wonder.
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