Originally posted by: jpbelauskas
Originally posted by: jpbelauskas
Originally posted by: moshquerade
when men can have babies we'll talk.Originally posted by: Zysoclaplem
Man accidentally gets girl pregnant. Man wants abortion. Woman does not. They take it to court. Who wins? Why?
Reverse situation. Man wants the child, woman does not. Take it to court. Who wins?
I've got a problem with this statement. the same rule should apply for the woman as well. responsibilty. if they aren't willing to take responsibility they shouldn't do the deed. if they do the deed and don't want the child, the father should have 50% say in what happens to the child regardless of who is carrying the baby. maybe the dad wants the kid? why can't he have it? why can't the mom pay CHSUP? who cares if she has to carry the kid for 9 months. It's only nine months (and please don't take it the wrong way, I have a child and know what my wife went through) of her life and she can give the kid to the father who is willing to take "responsibilty" for the child and walk away.
Originally posted by: moshquerade
when men can have babies we'll talk.Originally posted by: Zysoclaplem
Man accidentally gets girl pregnant. Man wants abortion. Woman does not. They take it to court. Who wins? Why?
Reverse situation. Man wants the child, woman does not. Take it to court. Who wins?
Originally posted by: 91TTZ
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Because it's her body and she's carrying it that's why.
The law is required to be fair, but as it is now, it's completely one sided. It can also be abused. If the woman wants to collect a bunch of free money, she can get pregnant by a bunch of different fathers, keep the kids for herself, and collect several paychecks every month. This is common.
Something needs to be changed to even out the law. Either make it an option for the man to require her to have a kid in the event that she wants an abortion and he doesn't, or at least remove his financial responsibility in the event that he wants an abortion and she doesn't.
But the way it is now, she can intentionally get knocked up, kick him out, keep the kid, and still collect a check.
Originally posted by: moshquerade
when men can have babies we'll talk.Originally posted by: Zysoclaplem
Man accidentally gets girl pregnant. Man wants abortion. Woman does not. They take it to court. Who wins? Why?
Reverse situation. Man wants the child, woman does not. Take it to court. Who wins?
Originally posted by: Alphathree33
Disclaimer: This is completely hypothetical. I'm genuinely curious because I don't know the answer. However, I know there are a bunch of 12-year-olds who will post two-word flames. I wish the mods would delete these posts.
So, yeah. Man has sex with woman. Woman gets pregnant (e.g. condom breaks, lies about birth control, pull out too late, etc.).
Baby undeniably belongs to man (e.g. man doesn't deny it, DNA shows it, etc.)
Man decides he wants nothing to do with woman and never speaks to her again.
Is woman now entitled to sue man/ask for child support/etc.? If so, what can the man do in response?
Please don't turn this into a thread about MORALS. It's obvious that guys who do this are pretty scummy. I'm just curious about how the law handles it.
Originally posted by: Alphathree33
Disclaimer: This is completely hypothetical. I'm genuinely curious because I don't know the answer. However, I know there are a bunch of 12-year-olds who will post two-word flames. I wish the mods would delete these posts.
So, yeah. Man has sex with woman. Woman gets pregnant (e.g. condom breaks, lies about birth control, pull out too late, etc.).
Baby undeniably belongs to man (e.g. man doesn't deny it, DNA shows it, etc.)
Man decides he wants nothing to do with woman and never speaks to her again.
Is woman now entitled to sue man/ask for child support/etc.? If so, what can the man do in response?
Please don't turn this into a thread about MORALS. It's obvious that guys who do this are pretty scummy. I'm just curious about how the law handles it.
Originally posted by: Syrch
yup, IF she persues it, and she will, then you are obligated by law
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
ding
Polygraph tests are also not admissible as evidence in all states and you can't actually force her to take one. Your word against hers (i.e. you lose).
Originally posted by: illusion88
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
ding
Polygraph tests are also not admissible as evidence in all states and you can't actually force her to take one. Your word against hers (i.e. you lose).
Wrong.
You can't foresee this consequence for having oral sex. You aren't responsible for that child. You can even sue her!
http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c...n/a/2005/02/24/national/a095250S07.DTL
and
http://www.goofball.com/news/INC20050306222309
Originally posted by: illusion88
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
ding
Polygraph tests are also not admissible as evidence in all states and you can't actually force her to take one. Your word against hers (i.e. you lose).
Wrong.
You can't foresee this consequence for having oral sex. You aren't responsible for that child. You can even sue her!
http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c...n/a/2005/02/24/national/a095250S07.DTL
and
http://www.goofball.com/news/INC20050306222309
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: illusion88
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
ding
Polygraph tests are also not admissible as evidence in all states and you can't actually force her to take one. Your word against hers (i.e. you lose).
Wrong.
You can't foresee this consequence for having oral sex. You aren't responsible for that child. You can even sue her!
http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c...n/a/2005/02/24/national/a095250S07.DTL
and
http://www.goofball.com/news/INC20050306222309
he still lost....
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: illusion88
Originally posted by: K1052
Originally posted by: waggy
Originally posted by: GunsMadeAmericaFree
What about if a one night stand YOU ONLY HAD ORAL SEX WITH goes into the bathroom later, gets your condom out, and squirts your semen into herself, getting herself pregnant? You never had vaginal sex with her, and no reasonable person would expect a child from what happened.
However, DNA tests would show the child to be yours. Lie detector tests, however, would show that you never did anything that would have caused a child.
So, what would happen in this situation?
wouldnt matter. you are still teh father of the child.
ding
Polygraph tests are also not admissible as evidence in all states and you can't actually force her to take one. Your word against hers (i.e. you lose).
Wrong.
You can't foresee this consequence for having oral sex. You aren't responsible for that child. You can even sue her!
http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.c...n/a/2005/02/24/national/a095250S07.DTL
and
http://www.goofball.com/news/INC20050306222309
he still lost....
yeah i don't think he read the full article. since it is at the bottom where it says he was told to pay child support.
Originally posted by: Alphathree33
Disclaimer: This is completely hypothetical. I'm genuinely curious because I don't know the answer. However, I know there are a bunch of 12-year-olds who will post two-word flames. I wish the mods would delete these posts.
So, yeah. Man has sex with woman. Woman gets pregnant (e.g. condom breaks, lies about birth control, pull out too late, etc.).
Baby undeniably belongs to man (e.g. man doesn't deny it, DNA shows it, etc.)
Man decides he wants nothing to do with woman and never speaks to her again.
Is woman now entitled to sue man/ask for child support/etc.? If so, what can the man do in response?
Please don't turn this into a thread about MORALS. It's obvious that guys who do this are pretty scummy. I'm just curious about how the law handles it.