Originally posted by: mugs
There has to be more to this story...
There's hundreds of complaints about this dealership at ripoff report
Originally posted by: mugs
There has to be more to this story...
Originally posted by: PaulNEPats
Originally posted by: mugs
There has to be more to this story...
There's hundreds of complaints about this dealership at ripoff report
Originally posted by: FelixDeKat
Originally posted by: PaulNEPats
Originally posted by: mugs
There has to be more to this story...
There's hundreds of complaints about this dealership at ripoff report
link?
Originally posted by: PaulNEPats
Originally posted by: FelixDeKat
Originally posted by: PaulNEPats
Originally posted by: mugs
There has to be more to this story...
There's hundreds of complaints about this dealership at ripoff report
link?
Text
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
So what's happened to the buyer's car that he traded-in.Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
Ahh yes, I left out the interesting part. Not only did he get the trade-in back, the dealership even gave him $500 for the trouble. I mean, still, the whole thing was underhanded and sneaky, but of all the stories that could have been published this guy's is not the worst. Not by a long shot. At least he came out technically ahead.Originally posted by: her209
So what's happened to the buyer's car that he traded-in.
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
Originally posted by: dirtboy
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
That would never hold up in court. Basic contract law would show that the buyer made payment. The check being cashed has nothing to do with it.
Someone needs a better lawyer.
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Ahh yes, I left out the interesting part. Not only did he get the trade-in back, the dealership even gave him $500 for the trouble. I mean, still, the whole thing was underhanded and sneaky, but of all the stories that could have been published this guy's is not the worst. Not by a long shot. At least he came out technically ahead.Originally posted by: her209
So what's happened to the buyer's car that he traded-in.
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
Originally posted by: Eeezee
Okay, $500 for the trouble is something that I really wouldn't mind, all things considered
Originally posted by: TG2
Was it registered? I would think the title would come to his house, with no liens on it, after the DMV is done with it
Originally posted by: dirtboy
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Okay, let's clear this one up:
THE CAR WAS NOT REPOSSESSED. THE SALE WAS NOT TECHNICALLY COMPLETE.
This popped up on FARK a while ago, and various links were discovered which shed more light on the story.
The key part of this story is how he paid: by check. Yes, it was a "cash" sale, but all that means is "money up front." The dude paid for it all at one time, with a reasonably immediate form of payment. Note that I said reasonably. This is where the catch comes in.
See, when you buy anything with a check it usually takes the business at least a day to process it and send it off to the bank, and if you're very, very lucky they may actually verify the check and put the money in the business account within, say, 18 hours of the customer writing the thing. However, the probability of that happening is like the probability of a Geo Metro hitting 100mph on the open highway. More often than not there's about 3 days before the check is properly cashed. In this case the dealership hadn't cashed the check yet, hadn't even finished processing it. (Hell, it was probably when they were processing it that they found it) Since they hadn't taken the money yet, as it were, they were still able to cancel the sale before it was finalized. Sure, the dude had a contract, but if you check that fine print I guarantee it has a clause in there about "receipt of payment." Legally, the car didn't belong to the guy yet. Kinda. It's a weird black hole of legal logic.
Anyway, while this is technically legal it is sure as hell underhanded. Even if the story is as they claim then the salesman is the one who needed to bear the brunt, not the owner. I'd say he has good grounds for a civil suit.
And yeah, the magic black hole of logic I described needs to be closed.
That would never hold up in court. Basic contract law would show that the buyer made payment. The check being cashed has nothing to do with it.
Originally posted by: compuwiz1
There are only a couple different ways the dealership could repo the vehicle, and those would be, if the guys' check bounced, or he really financed it, and they could not get him approved. A pricing mistake is not one of them. Something doesn't add up here. No dealership in their right mind would risk a multimillion dollar business license over a simple pricing error.
Other than the above couple reasons, if they accepted the trade in, and his cash, and contracted with him, they are out, even if they did not mean to sell it so cheaply. Not knowing the laws in the state he resides in, I don't know what clauses the sale contract contains. If it has a price error clause, then it could be legit, but that's doubtful.
