ivwshane
Lifer
- May 15, 2000
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Not very bright are you??
When the Nazis enacted their own law in 1938, they added restrictions aimed at Jews, such as not allowing Jews to work in any business involving guns. They also prohibited those under eighteen from buying guns, added yet another permit for handguns, and banned silencers and small hollow-point ammunition. Of course, Nazi officials were exempted from all gun permits. Later that year, after "Kristallnacht," Hitler forbade Jews to possess pretty much any weapons.
To summarize, Hitler did "effect total gun control," but only for the Jews, and only after his regime had been in power for several years. For the rest of the population he relied on laws already in place.
Yeah, you aren't too bright. As explained in the link, you clearly didn't read, the nazis didn't enact tougher gun laws because the ruling party before the nazis already had the toughest gun law of them all, they banned all private possession of guns. The nazis undid some of those laws and excluded the Jews. And as I already pointed out to you, had the Jews not been excluded from any restrictions, you'd have to be an idiot if you think they could have done anything against a full force army. It's why gun nutters who claim to want to keep the government in check is retarded because no gun, or resistance will be able to fight off the US army (regardless of how stupid that hypothetical is in the first place).
