Why Suicide Bomb NOW ??

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lozina

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
11,711
8
81
Originally posted by: Amused

You've proven nothing, including the phatom "bias." I have been, and continue to remain objective on the matter. I am neither Arab, Muslim, or Jew.

At one time, I used to fall for the propaganda put out by the Arabs calling themselves Palestnian. That was until I studied the history of the region for myself. No objective person can come to any other conclusion than that the Arabs have been the intolerant aggressors in this.

Then by flipping the coin over, can we not argue that you have fallen for the Israeli propaganda? :)

Because that region was the only region in the ME that was safe for them. First, there is safety in numbers, secondly, the British (who were the governing body at the time) were there and helped to maintain order and protect their rights. There is no contradiction whatsoever if you know the history.

Yes but the USA and Britain were far more receptive to immigrant Jews and far easier to reach. Well established Jewish communities existed in both said countries.

 

OulOat

Diamond Member
Aug 8, 2002
5,769
0
0
Originally posted by: Amused
Back to population growth. Nearly half a million Jews, and a slightly larger number of Arabs moved to the region at the same time. The starting number is irrelevant. The fact that both made a nearly equal effort to populate the land IS relevant.


Uh, no, go look at the orginal link. Second chart down. You tell me who immigrated more 12 times people than the other. And note, it says non-jews, which includes Christians, Muslims, etc
 

Amused

Elite Member
Apr 14, 2001
57,119
18,646
146
Originally posted by: OulOat
Originally posted by: Amused
Back to population growth. Nearly half a million Jews, and a slightly larger number of Arabs moved to the region at the same time. The starting number is irrelevant. The fact that both made a nearly equal effort to populate the land IS relevant.


Uh, no, go look at the orginal link. Second chart down. You tell me who immigrated more 12 times people than the other. And note, it says non-jews, which includes Christians, Muslims, etc

Pick one time frame and stick with it, please. If you're going to use a smaller time frame that is exactly the time that Hitler took power and Jews fled Europe enmass instead of the post WWI to WWII time frame we WERE discussing, you'll simply be changing the rules to fit your argument.

The fact of the matter is, That quick growth in that decade due to Hitler cannot be blamed as "Jews trying to take over." Where would YOU have gone were you a German Jew? Remember, most countries wouldn't take in Jews at the time for asylum purposes alone.
 

Amused

Elite Member
Apr 14, 2001
57,119
18,646
146
Originally posted by: lozina
Originally posted by: Amused

You've proven nothing, including the phatom "bias." I have been, and continue to remain objective on the matter. I am neither Arab, Muslim, or Jew.

At one time, I used to fall for the propaganda put out by the Arabs calling themselves Palestnian. That was until I studied the history of the region for myself. No objective person can come to any other conclusion than that the Arabs have been the intolerant aggressors in this.

Then by flipping the coin over, can we not argue that you have fallen for the Israeli propaganda? :)

Nope. I've filtered that as well.

Because that region was the only region in the ME that was safe for them. First, there is safety in numbers, secondly, the British (who were the governing body at the time) were there and helped to maintain order and protect their rights. There is no contradiction whatsoever if you know the history.

Yes but the USA and Britain were far more receptive to immigrant Jews and far easier to reach. Well established Jewish communities existed in both said countries.[/quote]

Again, most countries would not take Jews during that time for asylum alone. The US was turning away LOTS of Jews prior to, and during WWII.

 

OulOat

Diamond Member
Aug 8, 2002
5,769
0
0
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: OulOat
Originally posted by: Amused
Back to population growth. Nearly half a million Jews, and a slightly larger number of Arabs moved to the region at the same time. The starting number is irrelevant. The fact that both made a nearly equal effort to populate the land IS relevant.


Uh, no, go look at the orginal link. Second chart down. You tell me who immigrated more 12 times people than the other. And note, it says non-jews, which includes Christians, Muslims, etc

Pick one time frame and stick with it, please. If you're going to use a smaller time frame that is exactly the time that Hitler took power and Jews fled Europe enmass instead of the post WWI to WWII time frame we WERE discussing, you'll simply be changing the rules to fit your argument.

The fact of the matter is, That quick growth in that decade due to Hitler cannot be blamed as "Jews trying to take over." Where would YOU have gone were you a German Jew? Remember, most countries wouldn't take in Jews at the time for asylum purposes alone.

You didn't answer my question: Who immigrated more? I didn't ask why they immigrated, cause I already know the answer. And WTG is this about time frames, unless you can't read tables, you would know that in 1931 Jewish population was 1/4 of the Arabian population, by 1939 they were 1/2. Answer my question this time and prove your orginal statement wrong.
 

Amused

Elite Member
Apr 14, 2001
57,119
18,646
146
Originally posted by: OulOat
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: OulOat
Originally posted by: Amused
Back to population growth. Nearly half a million Jews, and a slightly larger number of Arabs moved to the region at the same time. The starting number is irrelevant. The fact that both made a nearly equal effort to populate the land IS relevant.


Uh, no, go look at the orginal link. Second chart down. You tell me who immigrated more 12 times people than the other. And note, it says non-jews, which includes Christians, Muslims, etc

Pick one time frame and stick with it, please. If you're going to use a smaller time frame that is exactly the time that Hitler took power and Jews fled Europe enmass instead of the post WWI to WWII time frame we WERE discussing, you'll simply be changing the rules to fit your argument.

The fact of the matter is, That quick growth in that decade due to Hitler cannot be blamed as "Jews trying to take over." Where would YOU have gone were you a German Jew? Remember, most countries wouldn't take in Jews at the time for asylum purposes alone.

You didn't answer my question: Who immigrated more? I didn't ask why they immigrated, cause I already know the answer. And WTG is this about time frames, unless you can't read tables, you would know that in 1931 Jewish population was 1/4 of the Arabian population, by 1939 they were 1/2. Answer my question this time and prove your orginal statement wrong.

You're still reaching for something that just isn't there. While we know the Jews migrated to the tune of nearly half a million to escape oppression between WWI and WWII what is the Arab reason? You point to numbers as if they mysteriously prove your point, but they do not.

Pick a time frame. In the original time frame discussed, nearly equal numbers of Jews and Arabs moved into the area. That you think narrowing the time frame to Hiter's reign of terror will somehow prove your point is fallacious. So the Jews had a burst in their migration numbers during the period. BFD. It's irrelevant.
 

mboy

Diamond Member
Jul 29, 2001
3,309
0
0
Why do people keep referring to the land as Palestine. Their NEVER was nor is their a Palestine. The land they inhabit now was part of JORDAN. King Husseing didnt trust the people living in the wast bank (yes, Jordainians). He thought they were going to try and overthrow him, so he basically kicked them out. To this day, the "palestinians" are treated like utter crap in Jordan and the rest of the arab world. Palestinian refugees living in Jordan can not even hold any job higher then a a very basic laborer. They are not allowed to be schooled or ANYTHING!!

The Palestians have no one to blame for their problems then JOrdan who KICKED THEM OUT IN THE 1st place.
 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: bizmark
Originally posted by: gump47371BTW, change the title please, polm. They aren't suicide bombers. They are homicide bombers. Their intention is to kill other people.
That's the most retarded thing I've ever heard and I won't rest until I eradicate this usage from ATOT. Every bombing is intended to hurt someone or something else. There are plenty of non-suicide bombings that are still bombings and still homicides. These particular bombings in Israel are distinguished from normal bombings by the fact that the perpetrator also kills him/her-self in the process of killing others. Hence "suicide bombing". "Homicide bombing" is redundant, and in fact wrong in some of these cases where they don't end up killing anybody else due to their bomb going off unintentionally or whatever.If you want to say "suicide homicide perpetrator" then that's fine with me. Or "suicide murderer". Whatever. But "homocide bomber" makes no sense.

what about child homicidal IDF soldiers in Jenin?
 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: ThePresence

It wasn't Arab land that Israel was created on. It was British land.
that is the worst bollks i have heard from you, and you come out with some really retarded comments.

 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: etech
lozinaDo a google search on "Jaffa riots 1920" and "Jerusalem riots 1920" and also for the "Grand Mufti Jerusalem"Logical analysis without any facts fits under the GIGO theory.

you do a search for gimp analysis, and increasing zionist immigration after WW1, forced land repos, and palesinian peasants being kick out by absentee land owners selling up.
 

Amused

Elite Member
Apr 14, 2001
57,119
18,646
146
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: etech
lozinaDo a google search on "Jaffa riots 1920" and "Jerusalem riots 1920" and also for the "Grand Mufti Jerusalem"Logical analysis without any facts fits under the GIGO theory.

you do a search for gimp analysis, and increasing zionist immigration after WW1, forced land repos, and palesinian peasants being kick out by absentee land owners selling up.

We've discussed this. Census records show a roughly equal number of Arabs and Jews migrated to the area between WWI and WWII. The Jews went there to escape the hatred in Europe, and the appalling treatment they got in the rest of the middle east. Why did the Arabs move there?

When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right.

As for your insults...
rolleye.gif
 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: lozinaAmused, you talk like Israel is the most innocent country in the World and has had no responsiblity to the violence in the region. That is the most illogical misconception you are trying to push though. Are you really trying to say the Palestinians just woke up one day and randomly decided to hate the Israelis ? No this kind of hatred must have legitimate sources- just what it is we may never publically find out because of all the lies and propaganda by both parties involved have long obscured the truth. It is true that before the 1940's in the land called Palestine, Jews and Arabs were living side by side in harmony. What happened? Merely colonizing the area wouldn't be enough for the Arabs to hate Israel so much, but perhaps it is the vision of Israel itself which is the problem. Note that Israel out-right claims to be the "land for the Jews". Note this does not include "Arabs". Were the Israels going to just colonize the area and hope the Arabs living in their envisioned 'Israel' to jsut move away on their own will? Perhaps violence or more deceptive means were used to try to persuade these Arabs to move away? Afterall, you can't have a nation for the Jews if a larger percentage of it's voting citizens were Arabs. This is all just logical analysis. Also, be aware Israel has had around 65 UN resolutions against it. Look them up on the UN site or do a google search. Far more than the evil regime of Iraq. But then again, maybe it's just that the entire world is 'out to get the Jews'
rolleye.gif
Oh BS. Arab hate of the Jews (and any other religion for that matter) goes back thousands of years. The treatment of Jews as second class citizens, and even animals in various Arab countries for hundreds of years is well documented. In fact, when the migration to Israel started, nearly all of the Jews living in fear and misery in Arab nations fled to what is today, Israel.Arab hate of Jews is not new and it is not because of the formation of Israel. The hate stems from the very same kind of hate that has fueled recent attacks against the US and this very attack in Nigeria. They cannot and will not stand for infidels in or near their holy lands.

well clever boy Islam only started in 7th century before that they followed the abrahamic tradition, a corrupted form of Judeaism, and there is no evidence for arabs being anti foreigners. the only arabs that existed lived as bedouins and sought treaties with neighbours, and egypt was christian. After Islam they initially lived peacefully with jews who abided by the rules, and pogroms were very very infrequent, up to the modern day. much more frequent was inter-islamist violence eg the assassins.

you are obviously not a revisionist, and have been played to by zionist propagandists. of course jews were second class citizens, blacks were in america until 60's, if you remember, but they were relatively safe, much safer than say a shiite in pakistan.


 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: etechlozinaDo a google search on "Jaffa riots 1920" and "Jerusalem riots 1920" and also for the "Grand Mufti Jerusalem"Logical analysis without any facts fits under the GIGO theory.
you do a search for gimp analysis, and increasing zionist immigration after WW1, forced land repos, and palesinian peasants being kick out by absentee land owners selling up.
We've discussed this. Census records show a roughly equal number of Arabs and Jews migrated to the area between WWI and WWII. The Jews went there to escape the hatred in Europe, and the appalling treatment they got in the rest of the middle east. Why did the Arabs move there?When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right. As for your insults...
rolleye.gif

the bottom line is this zionist organised in the uk and the world over to fund land purchses that mainly kicked palestinians off their land, and usually into destitution, hardly freindly, but a sign of things to come.

secondly the people of the area didnt have a government, they have an imposed brisish manadte, that was imposed by the brisish and french after WW1. it was hand in hand with the new organisations like the haganah, and britain had committed to setting up a jewish state. so your comment 'When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right.' is idiotic, because you are a brainwashed myoptic idiot. if the palesinians were represented the jews would never had been alowed into the palesinians' country.
finally, I have only heard about arab immigration, from israel apologists, and why shouldnt arabs move into the area, arabs had been moving from overpopulation cycles in the dessert to the levant for millenia, and it was their land after all, not the jews land.
 

Amused

Elite Member
Apr 14, 2001
57,119
18,646
146
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: etechlozinaDo a google search on "Jaffa riots 1920" and "Jerusalem riots 1920" and also for the "Grand Mufti Jerusalem"Logical analysis without any facts fits under the GIGO theory.
you do a search for gimp analysis, and increasing zionist immigration after WW1, forced land repos, and palesinian peasants being kick out by absentee land owners selling up.
We've discussed this. Census records show a roughly equal number of Arabs and Jews migrated to the area between WWI and WWII. The Jews went there to escape the hatred in Europe, and the appalling treatment they got in the rest of the middle east. Why did the Arabs move there?When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right. As for your insults...
rolleye.gif

the bottom line is this zionist organised in the uk and the world over to fund land purchses that mainly kicked palestinians off their land, and usually into destitution, hardly freindly, but a sign of things to come.

secondly the people of the area didnt have a government, they have an imposed brisish manadte, that was imposed by the brisish and french after WW1. it was hand in hand with the new organisations like the haganah, and britain had committed to setting up a jewish state. so your comment 'When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right.' is idiotic, because you are a brainwashed myoptic idiot. if the palesinians were represented the jews would never had been alowed into the palesinians' country.
finally, I have only heard about arab immigration, from israel apologists, and why shouldnt arabs move into the area, arabs had been moving from overpopulation cycles in the dessert to the levant for millenia, and it was their land after all, not the jews land.

You insult me, rewrite history, then have the gall to call me myopic? Insult me again and you can debate this by yourself. I'll have won by default.

There never, ever, in history was a "country" called "Palestine." Before the British had it, it was the Turks.

Land belongs to whomever buys it, and owns it. It is not the Israeli's fault the local Arabs could not get it together and form a government. The Arabs of the region never called the area "Palestine" nor did they ever consider themselves "Palestinian." They considered themselves to be "Syrian" and considered the word "Palestine" as a Jewish word. It was not until their aggression and huge defeat in 1967 that they adopted the "Palestinian" persona to garner world sympathy.
 

bsd

Banned
Oct 31, 2002
318
0
0
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: Amused
Originally posted by: bsd
Originally posted by: etechlozinaDo a google search on "Jaffa riots 1920" and "Jerusalem riots 1920" and also for the "Grand Mufti Jerusalem"Logical analysis without any facts fits under the GIGO theory.
you do a search for gimp analysis, and increasing zionist immigration after WW1, forced land repos, and palesinian peasants being kick out by absentee land owners selling up.
We've discussed this. Census records show a roughly equal number of Arabs and Jews migrated to the area between WWI and WWII. The Jews went there to escape the hatred in Europe, and the appalling treatment they got in the rest of the middle east. Why did the Arabs move there?When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right. As for your insults...
rolleye.gif
the bottom line is this zionist organised in the uk and the world over to fund land purchses that mainly kicked palestinians off their land, and usually into destitution, hardly freindly, but a sign of things to come.secondly the people of the area didnt have a government, they have an imposed brisish manadte, that was imposed by the brisish and french after WW1. it was hand in hand with the new organisations like the haganah, and britain had committed to setting up a jewish state. so your comment 'When the owner of land sells, he sells. He owns the land, it's his right.' is idiotic, because you are a brainwashed myoptic idiot. if the palesinians were represented the jews would never had been alowed into the palesinians' country.finally, I have only heard about arab immigration, from israel apologists, and why shouldnt arabs move into the area, arabs had been moving from overpopulation cycles in the dessert to the levant for millenia, and it was their land after all, not the jews land.
You insult me, rewrite history, then have the gall to call me myopic? Insult me again and you can debate this by yourself. I'll have won by default.There never, ever, in history was a "country" called "Palestine." Before the British had it, it was the Turks. Land belongs to whomever buys it, and owns it. It is not the Israeli's fault the local Arabs could not get it together and form a government. The Arabs of the region never called the area "Palestine" nor did they ever consider themselves "Palestinian." They considered themselves to be "Syrian" and considered the word "Palestine" as a Jewish word. It was not until their aggression and huge defeat in 1967 that they adopted the "Palestinian" persona to garner world sympathy.

you are one of the dumb peeps on atot.
 

ThePresence

Elite Member
Nov 19, 2001
27,727
16
81
Originally posted by: bsd

that is the worst bollks i have heard from you, and you come out with some really retarded comments.
Eh, I'm not even gonna bother with this protozoa.