Which driver's fault would it be if...

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TJN23

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May 4, 2002
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Two drivers come to a stop sign and face each other.

Driver #1 blows the stop sign at 5-10mph and goes straight through it.

Driver #2 fails to put his left signal on and proceeds to go left.

They crash simultaneously

Who gets the blame? One guy blew the stop sign and the other didn't put his signal on?
 
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mchammer187

Diamond Member
Nov 26, 2000
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#1 would be more at fault but not #2 is not free from blame but it would be like 80/20 IMO

well if #2 deliberately begins the turn before #1 enters the stop but if #1 enters the intersection at the same time than the blame is about even i would say because

#2 should still have ample time to stop
 
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mchammer187

Diamond Member
Nov 26, 2000
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Originally posted by: TJN23
lets say Driver #1 blew the stop sign even slower, say at 3-5mph
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are you saying driver 1 is hitting driver 2 or driver 2 is hitting driver 1?
 
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TJN23

Golden Member
May 4, 2002
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Originally posted by: mchammer187
Originally posted by: TJN23
lets say Driver #1 blew the stop sign even slower, say at 3-5mph
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are you saying driver 1 is hitting driver 2 or driver 2 is hitting driver 1?
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it's definitely a simultaneous crash
 
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Titan

Golden Member
Oct 15, 1999
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if they both come to the stop sign at the same time, and neither of them stop, i would say both are to blame, if not #2 more so because taking a left should be a slower manuver and he should have time to stop. I dunno the traffic law, why are you all saying 1?

I would really say whoever cuts in front of who first is not at fault, if #2 turns in front, #1 should be able to stop, if #1 blows through first, #2 is at fault for not stopping on the turn. How could this be exactly simultaneous?
 
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conjur

No Lifer
Jun 7, 2001
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Originally posted by: tkotitan2
if they both come to the stop sign at the same time, and neither of them stop, i would say both are to blame, if not #2 more so because taking a left should be a slower manuver and he should have time to stop. I dunno the traffic law, why are you all saying 1?
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If two cars reach an intersection at the same time, the car on the right has the right-of-way. And, if driver #1 was on the left, he was supposed to have yielded to driver #2.

We're also missing the complete story here. We don't know if driver #2 stopped first then proceeded from the stop sign and then driver #1 rolled thru and then driver #2 turned left and was hit by #1. BTW, how the hell could it not be simultaneous? :p
 
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crypticlogin

Diamond Member
Feb 6, 2001
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I think it's more #2 than #1 just because of right of way. Even if #2 signaled, #1 would still have right of way and *know* he'd have it. Both of them not stopping are both their faults and both should be cited for it, but if there were no stop signs then the situation would be clearer as to who was wrong.

But if #1 was going 3-5mph, I guess #2 was an idiot if he couldn't gauge whether or not he'd make the turn.


<-- not a cop, insurance adjuster, etc... just an armchair witness.
<-- waiting for ylen13 to argue nobody's at fault, both were right all the way through.
 
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Titan

Golden Member
Oct 15, 1999
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Originally posted by: conjur
Originally posted by: tkotitan2
if they both come to the stop sign at the same time, and neither of them stop, i would say both are to blame, if not #2 more so because taking a left should be a slower manuver and he should have time to stop. I dunno the traffic law, why are you all saying 1?
Click to expand...

If two cars reach an intersection at the same time, the car on the right has the right-of-way. And, if driver #1 was on the left, he was supposed to have yielded to driver #2.

We're also missing the complete story here. We don't know if driver #2 stopped first then proceeded from the stop sign and then driver #1 rolled thru and then driver #2 turned left and was hit by #1. BTW, how the hell could it not be simultaneous? :p
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If two people are facing each other, which one is on the left?
 
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spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
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yeah,

Either way you look at it the person going straight has right of way.

Person turning left yields to everybody.
 
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conjur

No Lifer
Jun 7, 2001
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Originally posted by: tkotitan2
Originally posted by: conjur
Originally posted by: tkotitan2
if they both come to the stop sign at the same time, and neither of them stop, i would say both are to blame, if not #2 more so because taking a left should be a slower manuver and he should have time to stop. I dunno the traffic law, why are you all saying 1?
Click to expand...

If two cars reach an intersection at the same time, the car on the right has the right-of-way. And, if driver #1 was on the left, he was supposed to have yielded to driver #2.

We're also missing the complete story here. We don't know if driver #2 stopped first then proceeded from the stop sign and then driver #1 rolled thru and then driver #2 turned left and was hit by #1. BTW, how the hell could it not be simultaneous? :p
Click to expand...


If two people are facing each other, which one is on the left?
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Oh...DOH!...I was thinking one was on the left.

Ok...yeah. Driver #2 was definitely at fault, then. I mean....turn in front of someone else? WTF? And no turn signal? Both drivers are stupid for rolling thru the stop sign to begin with. It says, "STOP", not, "SLOW" for a reason.

Oh, and turn signals are NOT a courtesy. They are a requirement! A driver can be cited for failure to use turn signals.
 
Vic

Vic

Elite Member
Jun 12, 2001
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Originally posted by: spidey07
yeah,

Either way you look at it the person going straight has right of way.

Person turning left yields to everybody.
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True, but this is at a stop sign controlled intersection, not a light. We're assuming that #2 actually stopped (while #1 blew through). If they crash at the same time in the middle of the intersection, this means that #2 was at the stop sign first, which gives him the right-of-way.
 
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