What Does it Mean to be Pro-Life?

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imported_tss4

Golden Member
Jun 30, 2004
1,607
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: tss4
It does nothing to always say, "I allready went over that". I remember that thread. You presented a good case, but you didn't prove it. I repect your opinion, but its far from proven.
I'm sorry if it isn't sufficient for me to say 'I've already covered that' but I don't have time to have an in-depth discussion regarding the same topics over and over again, especially when the people I'm discussing it with aren't the least bit open to what I'm saying. If people were actually interested, they could easily go and find the very same arguments without my having to restate them yet again.

Its a debate thread. If you don't feel like discussing this topic "again" then why are you here "again"? I've proven my points in threads very similar to this one too, but if I'm here again, its because I'm willing to argue my point again. Otherwise, why waste your's and my time?

Let me ask you a question: if a fetus is part of a woman's body, why should she not be allowed to abort even after the point of viability? If it's part of her body at conception, it most certainly is right up until it is born.


I have no idea why you are asking me this. You must be confusing your discussions with people here. I never even commented on a fetus being part of the woman's body and I also said that even as I pro choice person, I believe the point of viabilty was a faulty arguement to make.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
My point is that if the child is not part of the woman's body, even if you assume it is fully human as soon as it's conceived, then the women should be allowed to evict it once it reaches the point of viability, without facing murder charges.

My position is the opposite - abortion should be legal in the first trimester and/or as long as the child could not survive if born prematurely, and beyond this point the woman has made their choice and must keep the baby. Your position is the opposite (WRT the woman's degree of control, and whether the baby is 'part' of her body). A logical extension is that once the baby is able to survive outside the womb, the woman should be within her rights to evict it.
Why does the woman have the right to 'evict' the fetus from her body? A woman does not have the right to kick a newborn child out of her house - why not? Because the woman has a responsibility to the child. Why does this responsibility exist? Because the 'fetus' has now been granted rights upon birth. Why don't these rights extend to the fetus prior to actually passing down the birth canal? That's the ultimate question in these matters. Why is there a morally relevant difference between a fetus with its head still in the birth canal and one with the head outside the birth canal? I don't think such a distinction actually exists, other than in the minds of those who want to allow any action that science can provide simply to remove any possibility of inconvenience in the lives of those who can act on their own behalf. This is the entire basis for allowing partial-birth abortion (yes, I know the 'official name' of the medical procedure, but I'm pretty sure everyone knows it by this name much more readily).
Originally posted by: totalcommand
It is most certainly not. The point of viability is the point at which a new independent life has formed, that is why it isn't part of the mother anymore. Until the fetus is independently viable, it is still part of the mother.
What basis do you have for this claim? You state that the fetus is 'absolutely not' part of the woman's body, then claim that it is. Color me confused.
My point is that criminals have access to many, many things that law abiding citizens do not. Giving law abiding citizens acess to those many, many things is not the right thing to do. Should RPG's be available to the public because criminals of access to them?

"I might be a little nervous, but it's whatever you want to do I guess."

This is exactly the point. Letting everybody carry around whatever guns they want because the criminals can get access to anything they want with sufficient effort creates a culture of fear, which is directly opposed to the sense of security that you think guns are supposed to give.
You'll note that I never said the purpose of guns is giving security. This is but one possible function. What you need to realize is that banning guns accomplishes nothing. Do you think such laws will keep you safe from someone who wants to harm you? Well, then, you're simply wrong. If someone wants to kill you, they will find a way, whether or not their gun of choice is legal. I can go to Wal-Mart and buy things that will be much more devastating than a simple RPG, as can anyone that knows how to use Google. If you get a sense of security from banning guns, then I submit you haven't thought the situation through very carefully, or at least not in a realistic manner. If you walk the streets afraid of someone with a gun, then I don't know what to tell you. If you outlaw guns, these people will still have them. Or, they will get a knife, which is just as deadly. The difference is that if guns are legal, you can have one and defend yourself from someone who greatly outclasses you physically.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Tabb
...
You're not interested in debate. I thought you were, once, then I realized you're just interested in regurgitating rhetoric. You don't know or understand the issues we're discussing, so I'm not going to waste my time addressing your borrowed talking points. You had your chance to debate with me that you initiated, but you dropped out as soon as you realized that you didn't have any ammunition for a real debate. I don't fault you for this, as it's the manner in which 95% of the members of this forum conduct themselves, but I'm done wasting my time arguing against a professional rhetoric machine that spouts nothing but misinformation. People that subscribe to such things haven't formed their own opinions, nor will they - they obviously prefer to be handed their opinions in the form of propaganda.
Originally posted by: tss4
Its a debate thread. If you don't feel like discussing this topic "again" then why are you here "again"? I've proven my points in threads very similar to this one too, but if I'm here again, its because I'm willing to argue my point again. Otherwise, why waste your's and my time?
This thread wasn't about abortion - it was about the issues in the OP, which I did address.
 

Tab

Lifer
Sep 15, 2002
12,145
0
76
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Tabb
...
You're not interested in debate. I thought you were, once, then I realized you're just interested in regurgitating rhetoric. You don't know or understand the issues we're discussing, so I'm not going to waste my time addressing your borrowed talking points. You had your chance to debate with me that you initiated, but you dropped out as soon as you realized that you didn't have any ammunition for a real debate. I don't fault you for this, as it's the manner in which 95% of the members of this forum conduct themselves, but I'm done wasting my time arguing against a professional rhetoric machine that spouts nothing but misinformation. People that subscribe to such things haven't formed their own opinions, nor will they - they obviously prefer to be handed their opinions in the form of propaganda.


And you are? You consistantly weasly your way through threads and make snide comments such as "Oh! I posted that before! It was already discussed and I pwned you!".
 

Tab

Lifer
Sep 15, 2002
12,145
0
76
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
My point is that if the child is not part of the woman's body, even if you assume it is fully human as soon as it's conceived, then the women should be allowed to evict it once it reaches the point of viability, without facing murder charges.

My position is the opposite - abortion should be legal in the first trimester and/or as long as the child could not survive if born prematurely, and beyond this point the woman has made their choice and must keep the baby. Your position is the opposite (WRT the woman's degree of control, and whether the baby is 'part' of her body). A logical extension is that once the baby is able to survive outside the womb, the woman should be within her rights to evict it.
Why does the woman have the right to 'evict' the fetus from her body? A woman does not have the right to kick a newborn child out of her house - why not?

She can't "kick" the baby out of the house, but if you don't want your kids. The state will take them. You are only responsible to yourself.
 

totalcommand

Platinum Member
Apr 21, 2004
2,487
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: totalcommand
It is most certainly not. The point of viability is the point at which a new independent life has formed, that is why it isn't part of the mother anymore. Until the fetus is independently viable, it is still part of the mother.
What basis do you have for this claim? You state that the fetus is 'absolutely not' part of the woman's body, then claim that it is. Color me confused.

SOrry that was written badly.
Ignore that first sentence, the rest still makes sense. Independent viability, though this is indeterminate, is the criteria for deciding whether it is a part of the mother or not. Because of the indeterminate nature, we should assign a time that "errs on the side of life" (to borrow Bush's phrase) at which it becomes a separate entity.


My point is that criminals have access to many, many things that law abiding citizens do not. Giving law abiding citizens acess to those many, many things is not the right thing to do. Should RPG's be available to the public because criminals of access to them?

"I might be a little nervous, but it's whatever you want to do I guess."

This is exactly the point. Letting everybody carry around whatever guns they want because the criminals can get access to anything they want with sufficient effort creates a culture of fear, which is directly opposed to the sense of security that you think guns are supposed to give.
You'll note that I never said the purpose of guns is giving security. This is but one possible function. What you need to realize is that banning guns accomplishes nothing. Do you think such laws will keep you safe from someone who wants to harm you? Well, then, you're simply wrong. If someone wants to kill you, they will find a way, whether or not their gun of choice is legal. I can go to Wal-Mart and buy things that will be much more devastating than a simple RPG, as can anyone that knows how to use Google. If you get a sense of security from banning guns, then I submit you haven't thought the situation through very carefully, or at least not in a realistic manner. If you walk the streets afraid of someone with a gun, then I don't know what to tell you. If you outlaw guns, these people will still have them. Or, they will get a knife, which is just as deadly. The difference is that if guns are legal, you can have one and defend yourself from someone who greatly outclasses you physically.

But, as you say, it is one possibly function. And you cited it as the major function by saying that citizens should have guns because criminals have the potential to obtain it. Security is inherent in that statement.

Personally, me having a gun is not going to make me feel any more secure or any more safe. As you say, if criminals want to kill you, they will find a way, gun or no gun.

Me having a gun may make it less likely for the criminal to succeed, but once we get in the likelihood arena, you'll see that having gun controls makes it less likely that a criminal will obtain a gun in the first place. And if the criminal has no gun at all, I'll feel much more secure.

Furthermore, I believe that every law-abiding citizen has the potential to become a criminal. People who seem perfectly normal burst out into office shootings. If you hand everyone a gun, they'll kill the office shooter with minimal damage (meaning a few injured people, except if it's an AK-47 or RPG). But if you have a chance to keep the gun out of that person's hands, you'll avoid much of the damage.

Keeping high-powered guns out of citizens hands can decrease un-premeditated murder. And for premeditated murder, as I said earlier, if the criminals want to kill you, they will find a way to kill you whether you have the gun or not.

Finally, when kids get their hands on these things, they can cause serious damage by accident. Why have gun companies lobbied against gun locks? That's shameful in my opinion.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: totalcommand
Independent viability, though this is indeterminate, is the criteria for deciding whether it is a part of the mother or not. Because of the indeterminate nature, we should assign a time that "errs on the side of life" (to borrow Bush's phrase) at which it becomes a separate entity.
It seems that you're looking at the legal distinction rather than a logical one. This sort of describes the existing system specified by the USSC for when states may regulate abortion and when they may not. Viability is not a logically sound determinant of whether or not something constitutes a person, much less whether something is part of another person. The reason is simple: it does not seek to address the reason for the assignment of rights. It was used by the USSC as a hand-waving maneuver to avoid entering into the philosophical realm of determining whether or not a fetus is a person. Unfortunately, the court delved into this realm in other ways in the same decision by dictating the power of states to legislate based on potentiality of a fetus after the point of perceived viability. This allows states to limit abortions in the second and third trimesters under certain conditions. Unfortunately, the limitations the USSC placed basically make any restrictions meaningless, thereby allowing abortions at any point during the pregnancy. This was an inevitable consequence of their use of the fourteenth amendment as justification for their ruling, since the distinction of only a 'born' human being a person obviated the need to allow abortion in all trimesters. I can readily demonstrate why this fails logically.
But, as you say, it is one possibly function. And you cited it as the major function by saying that citizens should have guns because criminals have the potential to obtain it. Security is inherent in that statement.

Personally, me having a gun is not going to make me feel any more secure or any more safe. As you say, if criminals want to kill you, they will find a way, gun or no gun.

Me having a gun may make it less likely for the criminal to succeed, but once we get in the likelihood arena, you'll see that having gun controls makes it less likely that a criminal will obtain a gun in the first place. And if the criminal has no gun at all, I'll feel much more secure.

Finally, when kids get their hands on these things, they can cause serious damage by accident. Why have gun companies lobbied against gun locks? That's shameful in my opinion.
I'm simply saying that banning guns essentially accomplishes nothing. The root of the troubles with guns is not the guns themselves, but the gun owners. The guns are simply a manifestation of the owner's preexisting characteristics: irresponsibility in the case of accidental deaths and participation in illicit behavior in the case of intentional shootings. In other words, you're not addressing the root of the problem, you're trying to treat the symptom. The underlying maladies will still exist.
Furthermore, I believe that every law-abiding citizen has the potential to become a criminal. People who seem perfectly normal burst out into office shootings. If you hand everyone a gun, they'll kill the office shooter with minimal damage (meaning a few injured people, except if it's an AK-47 or RPG). But if you have a chance to keep the gun out of that person's hands, you'll avoid much of the damage.

Keeping high-powered guns out of citizens hands can decrease un-premeditated murder. And for premeditated murder, as I said earlier, if the criminals want to kill you, they will find a way to kill you whether you have the gun or not.
Every citizen has the potential to become a suicide bomber too. Are you going to take toilet cleaner off the shelves, since it can be used to make bombs? You cannot predict the potentiality of a situation involving human behavior with the degree of certainty that you're suggesting, nor do I believe that outlawing firearms will make it any more difficult for criminals to find a gun when they want it - it would likely just make it slightly more expensive for them to do so, as in the case of illegal drugs. Obviously, illegal drugs still run rampant on the streets. However, this wasn't really my point. My point is that if a criminal has a knife and tries to kill me and I have a gun, then I am in a much better position, even if he's well-trained in knife fighting. If he has a gun and I have a gun, I'm in a much better position than if I were unarmed or armed with a knife. A gun is an equalizer that allows society's most vulnerable to be protected from its least vulnerable.
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
My point is that if the child is not part of the woman's body, even if you assume it is fully human as soon as it's conceived, then the women should be allowed to evict it once it reaches the point of viability, without facing murder charges.

My position is the opposite - abortion should be legal in the first trimester and/or as long as the child could not survive if born prematurely, and beyond this point the woman has made their choice and must keep the baby. Your position is the opposite (WRT the woman's degree of control, and whether the baby is 'part' of her body). A logical extension is that once the baby is able to survive outside the womb, the woman should be within her rights to evict it.
Why does the woman have the right to 'evict' the fetus from her body? A woman does not have the right to kick a newborn child out of her house - why not? Because the woman has a responsibility to the child. Why does this responsibility exist? Because the 'fetus' has now been granted rights upon birth. Why don't these rights extend to the fetus prior to actually passing down the birth canal? That's the ultimate question in these matters. Why is there a morally relevant difference between a fetus with its head still in the birth canal and one with the head outside the birth canal? I don't think such a distinction actually exists, other than in the minds of those who want to allow any action that science can provide simply to remove any possibility of inconvenience in the lives of those who can act on their own behalf. This is the entire basis for allowing partial-birth abortion (yes, I know the 'official name' of the medical procedure, but I'm pretty sure everyone knows it by this name much more readily).
She sure can - she can always give the child up for adoption.

Partial birth abortion is generally not, and should never be used as 'abortion'. It is intended only as a 'necessary' medical procedure, and should be used for no other reason. And convenience has nothing to do with why intact dilation and extraction is useful as a medical procedure.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
She sure can - she can always give the child up for adoption.

Partial birth abortion is generally not, and should never be used as 'abortion'. It is intended only as a 'necessary' medical procedure, and should be used for no other reason. And convenience has nothing to do with why intact dilation and extraction is useful as a medical procedure.
Partial birth abortion is generally not (read: NEVER) used for medical reasons. There is no logical, medical explanation for requiring a partial birth abortion. This position does not stand up to even the most cursory analysis: how could it possibly be less dangerous for the mother to deliver 90%, then stop mid-labor and have the procedure performed than simply delivering the baby completely? Simple: it is not. It's a ludicrous suggestion, to say the least, since the procedure involves invasive maneuvering of the fetus prior to delivery, which tacks much additional risk that is not inherent to the natural birthing procedure. If you can find any real medical evidence to contradict this, please share it. I don't think you will. This position is simply upheld by abortion advocates because if partial birth abortion is banned, then that opens the door to a comprehensive ban. Besides, why is it the position of government to enable a woman to choose her own life over that of a child? If the child were already born, could the woman still sacrifice her child's life to save her own?
 

Starbuck1975

Lifer
Jan 6, 2005
14,698
1,909
126
I was merely pointing out the correct spelling, my excitable friend. I'm not typically a spelling Nazi, but this time I was.

You feel that the U.S. has "mitigated civilian casualties" in Iraq. In fact, the U.S has killed plenty of civilians, imprisoned others (torturing them to boot) and probably "disappeared" plenty. I don't see that as mitigatng civilian casalties. Just stick to the facts and drop the shrill responses and maybe we can get somewhere.

Correct spelling or correct meaning? How can you ask me to stick to the facts when you provide none of your own to counter my discussion points?

Perhaps I should clarify what mitigating civilian casualties means in a combat environment. Firebombing Dresden was not mitigating casualties...indiscriminately carpet bombing German cities was not mitigating civilian casualties...dropping atomic bombs on Nagasaki and Hiroshima was not mitigating civilian casualties, although one could argue that the use of the atomic bomb against those cities eliminated the need for a far more bloody scenario involving the invasion of the island of Japan...napalming Vietnamese villages was not mitigating civilian casualties.

Taken within the context of what has gone on during other wars in urban environments, the civilian casualty toll in Iraq has been statistically small...granted, had we not invaded in the first place, the Iraqi population would not be sustaining casualties from this war, but the casualties that have occurred are fairly concentrated to insurgent strongholds, and the greatest cause of Iraqi civilian casualties in the past few months, perhaps even the last year, have been caused by the Iraqi insurgents themselves.

I am sticking to the facts, and the fact is, as hard as this may be for you to accept, that American soldiers do not relish the thought of mowing down civilians...granted there are exceptions, and we have certainly received reports of incidents in which American soldiers did not act in a professonal manner or in accordance with the Geneva convention...then again, during times of war, I have not heard of any army or military force that has not engaged in inhumane or barbaric behavior...this does not excuse such behavior, but it is an unfortunate aspect of war, and the darker side of human nature, especially in situations where you dehumanize your enemy.

That being said, on the grand scale of invading armies, the U.S. military has done a fairly decent job of doing what it can to minimize Iraqi civilian casualties.

 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
She sure can - she can always give the child up for adoption.

Partial birth abortion is generally not, and should never be used as 'abortion'. It is intended only as a 'necessary' medical procedure, and should be used for no other reason. And convenience has nothing to do with why intact dilation and extraction is useful as a medical procedure.
Partial birth abortion is generally not (read: NEVER) used for medical reasons. There is no logical, medical explanation for requiring a partial birth abortion. This position does not stand up to even the most cursory analysis: how could it possibly be less dangerous for the mother to deliver 90%, then stop mid-labor and have the procedure performed than simply delivering the baby completely? Simple: it is not. It's a ludicrous suggestion, to say the least, since the procedure involves invasive maneuvering of the fetus prior to delivery, which tacks much additional risk that is not inherent to the natural birthing procedure. If you can find any real medical evidence to contradict this, please share it. I don't think you will. This position is simply upheld by abortion advocates because if partial birth abortion is banned, then that opens the door to a comprehensive ban. Besides, why is it the position of government to enable a woman to choose her own life over that of a child? If the child were already born, could the woman still sacrifice her child's life to save her own?
Partial birth abortion is not used for 'convenience' abortion, and if it is, it should not be allowed. (How many times do I need to say that?). Given that the procedure has nothing to do with 'ordinary' abortions, I don't see how banning it would lead to a more comprehensive ban, however. I suspect your answer is a little too simplistic, but I'm not enough of an xpert on intact dilation and extraction to offer any more.

Are you now going to say that a woman should be forced to sacrifice her own life to save her unborn child? Of course she gets to choose. It might not even be 'selfish'; should a mother of three children be expected to die and leave her other children motherless to save a new child? Clearly her family is better off with her alive, and it's likely one of the hardest choices she would ever have to make.

Of course she couldn't make this choice after the child was born, this is obvious.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
Partial birth abortion is not used for 'convenience' abortion, and if it is, it should not be allowed. (How many times do I need to say that?). Given that the procedure has nothing to do with 'ordinary' abortions, I don't see how banning it would lead to a more comprehensive ban, however. I suspect your answer is a little too simplistic, but I'm not enough of an xpert on intact dilation and extraction to offer any more.

Are you now going to say that a woman should be forced to sacrifice her own life to save her unborn child? Of course she gets to choose. It might not even be 'selfish'; should a mother of three children be expected to die and leave her other children motherless to save a new child? Clearly her family is better off with her alive, and it's likely one of the hardest choices she would ever have to make.

Of course she couldn't make this choice after the child was born, this is obvious.
You don't need to say it ever, since it's simply false. There IS no partial birth abortion for the reasons that you state, ever. You can expect that my answer is too simplistic all you want, thereby demonstrating that you're not aware of the intertwining of these issues. Banning PBA acknowledges that cruelty to and killing of the fetus may not be acceptable in all cases. This essentially acknowledges that the fetus MAY be a person before birth. Thus, the door is opened for banning of other abortions.

Why can't she make the choice after the child is born? Like you said in your simple utilitarian calculation, her family would be better off. What logical difference exists in her choosing this ten minutes prior to delivery of her baby and ten minutes after? Spatial displacement? Umbilocal attachment? Neither of these are ethically significant.
 

imported_tss4

Golden Member
Jun 30, 2004
1,607
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: tss4
Its a debate thread. If you don't feel like discussing this topic "again" then why are you here "again"? I've proven my points in threads very similar to this one too, but if I'm here again, its because I'm willing to argue my point again. Otherwise, why waste your's and my time?
This thread wasn't about abortion - it was about the issues in the OP, which I did address.

Then don't cite your posts in another thread as proven fact to support you're arguement unless you're ready to discuss, defend and elaborate on them. That's a simple formula to stick to in a "debate" forum.
 

bamacre

Lifer
Jul 1, 2004
21,029
2
81
Originally posted by: Orsorum
I am pro-life, in that any action by me which takes or threatens the life of another should be able to be met with equal detriment to my own. I oppose abortion, I fully oppose gun control, and I do not yet have an opinion on the Terry Schiavo case. I think that Bush and the US Congress overstepped their bounds in their pitiful attempt to pander to the typical "pro-life" crowd.

:thumbsup::thumbsup:
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
Partial birth abortion is not used for 'convenience' abortion, and if it is, it should not be allowed. (How many times do I need to say that?). Given that the procedure has nothing to do with 'ordinary' abortions, I don't see how banning it would lead to a more comprehensive ban, however. I suspect your answer is a little too simplistic, but I'm not enough of an xpert on intact dilation and extraction to offer any more.

Are you now going to say that a woman should be forced to sacrifice her own life to save her unborn child? Of course she gets to choose. It might not even be 'selfish'; should a mother of three children be expected to die and leave her other children motherless to save a new child? Clearly her family is better off with her alive, and it's likely one of the hardest choices she would ever have to make.

Of course she couldn't make this choice after the child was born, this is obvious.
You don't need to say it ever, since it's simply false. There IS no partial birth abortion for the reasons that you state, ever. You can expect that my answer is too simplistic all you want, thereby demonstrating that you're not aware of the intertwining of these issues. Banning PBA acknowledges that cruelty to and killing of the fetus may not be acceptable in all cases. This essentially acknowledges that the fetus MAY be a person before birth. Thus, the door is opened for banning of other abortions.

Why can't she make the choice after the child is born? Like you said in your simple utilitarian calculation, her family would be better off. What logical difference exists in her choosing this ten minutes prior to delivery of her baby and ten minutes after? Spatial displacement? Umbilocal attachment? Neither of these are ethically significant.

Actually, the might be be ethically significant, but the point is it doesn't matter: once the baby is outside the mother, killing it is clearly an act of murder (I would argue that late term abortion *might* be murder as well), and there is no reasonable circumstance under which killing the baby after delivery would save the mother's life.

The most significant aspect is that while the baby is inside the mother, the possibility of a forced 'trade-off' of one life for another is real, and afterwards it is not.

As far as intact dilation and extraction goes, why don't you provide some information regarding how and when they are performed; I think since the medical community claims they are not abortions, that the onus would be on you to prove that they are. Of course, I'll say it again since you keep putting words back into my mouth - intact dilation and extraction should not be used as a late-term convenience abortion. Ever.
 

totalcommand

Platinum Member
Apr 21, 2004
2,487
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: totalcommand
Independent viability, though this is indeterminate, is the criteria for deciding whether it is a part of the mother or not. Because of the indeterminate nature, we should assign a time that "errs on the side of life" (to borrow Bush's phrase) at which it becomes a separate entity.
It seems that you're looking at the legal distinction rather than a logical one. This sort of describes the existing system specified by the USSC for when states may regulate abortion and when they may not. Viability is not a logically sound determinant of whether or not something constitutes a person, much less whether something is part of another person. The reason is simple: it does not seek to address the reason for the assignment of rights. It was used by the USSC as a hand-waving maneuver to avoid entering into the philosophical realm of determining whether or not a fetus is a person. Unfortunately, the court delved into this realm in other ways in the same decision by dictating the power of states to legislate based on potentiality of a fetus after the point of perceived viability. This allows states to limit abortions in the second and third trimesters under certain conditions. Unfortunately, the limitations the USSC placed basically make any restrictions meaningless, thereby allowing abortions at any point during the pregnancy. This was an inevitable consequence of their use of the fourteenth amendment as justification for their ruling, since the distinction of only a 'born' human being a person obviated the need to allow abortion in all trimesters. I can readily demonstrate why this fails logically.

My argument is as much philisophical as legal. Something does not exist as a separate entity, in my opinion, until it has fully reached the ability to exist separately from the mother. It's pretty simple, so maybe it sounds like a legal argument. But you probably know by now, I rarely use legal arguments, and this isn't one of those cases.

The determining of when the fetus becomes a separate entity, however, does become a legal issue. I won't delve into that here, but I provided a partial argument above because I thought you might try to counter something that I won't argue over.

When I have more time, I will put here an argument as to why even if the fetus becomes a separate entity, yet unborn, abortion is still an acceptable option.
But, as you say, it is one possibly function. And you cited it as the major function by saying that citizens should have guns because criminals have the potential to obtain it. Security is inherent in that statement.

Personally, me having a gun is not going to make me feel any more secure or any more safe. As you say, if criminals want to kill you, they will find a way, gun or no gun.

Me having a gun may make it less likely for the criminal to succeed, but once we get in the likelihood arena, you'll see that having gun controls makes it less likely that a criminal will obtain a gun in the first place. And if the criminal has no gun at all, I'll feel much more secure.

Finally, when kids get their hands on these things, they can cause serious damage by accident. Why have gun companies lobbied against gun locks? That's shameful in my opinion.
I'm simply saying that banning guns essentially accomplishes nothing. The root of the troubles with guns is not the guns themselves, but the gun owners. The guns are simply a manifestation of the owner's preexisting characteristics: irresponsibility in the case of accidental deaths and participation in illicit behavior in the case of intentional shootings. In other words, you're not addressing the root of the problem, you're trying to treat the symptom. The underlying maladies will still exist.

Oftentimes we have to treat the symptoms when we cannot find the cure. Think of it as abdominal pain; doctors usually have no idea what the cause is, but treat the symptoms (pain, dehydration) to alleviate the feelings the patient has. In an analagous way, no one can come even close to telling what causes people to shoot other people, what malfunction there is in their brain that tells them not to value human life. When we cannot find the true sources of problems, we are forced to treat the symptoms; and even when we find the true source of problems, we treat both the problem and the symptoms. Especially where we are concerned with human life, we should treat both.
Furthermore, I believe that every law-abiding citizen has the potential to become a criminal. People who seem perfectly normal burst out into office shootings. If you hand everyone a gun, they'll kill the office shooter with minimal damage (meaning a few injured people, except if it's an AK-47 or RPG). But if you have a chance to keep the gun out of that person's hands, you'll avoid much of the damage.

Keeping high-powered guns out of citizens hands can decrease un-premeditated murder. And for premeditated murder, as I said earlier, if the criminals want to kill you, they will find a way to kill you whether you have the gun or not.
Every citizen has the potential to become a suicide bomber too. Are you going to take toilet cleaner off the shelves, since it can be used to make bombs? You cannot predict the potentiality of a situation involving human behavior with the degree of certainty that you're suggesting, nor do I believe that outlawing firearms will make it any more difficult for criminals to find a gun when they want it - it would likely just make it slightly more expensive for them to do so, as in the case of illegal drugs. Obviously, illegal drugs still run rampant on the streets. However, this wasn't really my point. My point is that if a criminal has a knife and tries to kill me and I have a gun, then I am in a much better position, even if he's well-trained in knife fighting. If he has a gun and I have a gun, I'm in a much better position than if I were unarmed or armed with a knife. A gun is an equalizer that allows society's most vulnerable to be protected from its least vulnerable.

more to come, gotta go.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
Actually, the might be be ethically significant, but the point is it doesn't matter: once the baby is outside the mother, killing it is clearly an act of murder (I would argue that late term abortion *might* be murder as well), and there is no reasonable circumstance under which killing the baby after delivery would save the mother's life.

The most significant aspect is that while the baby is inside the mother, the possibility of a forced 'trade-off' of one life for another is real, and afterwards it is not.

As far as intact dilation and extraction goes, why don't you provide some information regarding how and when they are performed; I think since the medical community claims they are not abortions, that the onus would be on you to prove that they are. Of course, I'll say it again since you keep putting words back into my mouth - intact dilation and extraction should not be used as a late-term convenience abortion. Ever.
Can you find me a single case where carrying a fetus to term constitutes a threat to the mother's life? If you can, I'd really like to see it. I've searched extensively and been unable to find any such circumstance.

I never put words in your mouth. I did, however, state why PBA is NOT useful in saving the life of the mother. If you can contradict me, feel free to do so. If you can supply evidence that the medical community does not consider this procedure an abortion, feel free to do so. What else is it? Do they describe it as infanticide? If not, then it must be abortion. There really isn't anything else to call it except another euphemism for one of these two options.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
OK, I'm a glutton for punishment, so we'll go about this from scratch, per request. Here are the legal reasons why abortion is currently legal.

In abortion, the only issue that matters is whether or not the zygote/embryo/fetus is a person - one who has rights. The determination of whether or not abortion is just must, therefore, rely on the determination of the time at which an unborn human becomes a person. Currently, the legal justification for allowing abortion rests in a single statement of the constitutional amendment granting equal rights to members of all races. This amendment states that citizens (or persons) are those 'born or naturalized' in the United States. In Roe v. Wade, the USSC determined that the use of the word 'born' in this context was intended to define personhood as occurring at the time of birth, not before. Since this was part of the US Constitution, it superseded the anti-abortion laws existing in all fifty states at the time. The consenting justices claimed that the right to abortion is encompassed by a "right to privacy", as they claim is allowed by the fourteenth amendment, though the word privacy never appears in this amendment (nor in the Constitution at all, IIRC). Pertinent excerpts from the Roe v. Wade majority decision:

"We therefore conclude that the right of personal prviacy includes the abortion decision, but that this right is not unqualified and must be considered against important state interests in regulation... Although th eresults are divided, most of these courts have agreed that the right of privacy, however based, is broad enough to cover the abortion decision; that the right, nonetheless, is not absolute and is subject to some limitations; and that at some point the state interests as to protection of health, medical standards, and prenatal life, become dominant. We agree with this approach.

The appellee and certain amici argue that the fetus is a 'person' within the language and meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment. In support of this they outline at length and in detail the well-known facts of fetal development. If this suggestion of personhood is established, the appelant's case, of course, collapses, for the fetus' right to life is then guaranteed specifically by the Amendment. The appellant conceded as much on reargument. On the other hand, the appellee conceded on reargument that no case could be cited that holds that a fetus is a person iwthin the meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment...

As we have intimated above, it is reasonable and appropriate for a State to decide that at some point in time another interest, that of health of the mother or that of potential human life, becomes significantly involved. The woman's privacy is no longer sole and any right of privacy she possesses must be measured accordingly."

The court then goes on to discuss various theories of when life begins. They settle on viability, as stated here:

"With respect to the State's important and legitimate interest in potential life, the "compeling" point is at viability. This is so because the fetus then presumably has the capability of meaningful life outside the mother's womb. State regulation protective of fetal life after viability thus has both logical and biological justifications. If the State is interested in protecting fetal life after viability, it may go so far as to proscribe abortion during that period except when it is necessary to preserve the life or health of the mother..."

You'll note that this last sentence is what allows abortion at any stage of development, regardless of the laws of the state. Any and all pregnancies invariably put the mother's health, physical or emotional, at some level of risk. You'll also note that the court defines viability as the key point because it does not deem the fetus as having the 'capability of meaningful life' before this time.

The USSC went further in their ruling, declaring specifically under what conditions the state could seek to protect its own interest in the potential child according to the approximate duration of pregnancy as follows:

"To summarize and repeat:

1. A state criminal abortion statute of the current Texas type, that excepts from criminality only a life saving procedure on behalf of the mother, without regard to pregnancy stage and wtihout recognition of the other interests involved, is violative of the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
a. For the stage prior to approximately teh end of the first trimester, the abortion decision and its effectuation must be left to the medical judgment of the pregnant woman's attending physician.
b. For the stage subsequent to approximately the end of hte first trimester, the State, in promoting its interest in the health of the mother, may, if it chooses, regulate the abortion procedure in wayss that are reasonably related to maternal health.
c. For the stage subsequent to viability the State, in promoting its interest in the potentiality of human life, may, if it chooses, regulate, and even proscribe, abortion except where it is necessary, in appropriate medical judgment, for the preservation of the life or health of the mother.
"

Once again, you'll note that the very last sentence opens the door for an abortion at any time. In phrasing the decision in this way, the court effectively stripped the states of all rights to restrict abortion while trying to appear to be granting them these very rights. You'll also note that the health, not just life, of the mother is sufficient cause for an abortion at any stage of pregnancy. Many in this forum claim that it is only to save the life of the mother, which is simply incorrect.

Cliff notes are in bold. :p
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Once again, you'll note that the very last sentence opens the door for an abortion at any time. In phrasing the decision in this way, the court effectively stripped the states of all rights to restrict abortion while trying to appear to be granting them these very rights. You'll also note that the health, not just life, of the mother is sufficient cause for an abortion at any stage of pregnancy. Many in this forum claim that it is only to save the life of the mother, which is simply incorrect.

Cliff notes are in bold. :p

Actually, my own mother suffered from toxemia, during both of her prgnancies; had her case been more serious - and it happens - the only options would have been premature delivery (if the fetus had been sufficiently developed to survive) or late-term abortion. This happens. So you see, it was at one time a possibility that I might have been a late-term abortion, and yet I still support the mother's right to choose, should such a choice be necessary (it never reached that point for me or for my brother).

Now, you're confusing my support of abortion 'at all' with support of the current exact legislation. I'm mixed on whether serious but not life-threatening consequences for the mother should be justification for late-term abortions, and I fail to see how the last clause prevent s anti-abortion laws after the point of viability. Obviously, those afraid of stretch marks need not apply.

I don't think society is in a place to make a value judgement about choosing one life for another; the only person who can make that choice is the mother, and I know they don't always choose to live themselves (the Vatican makes heroes of such people, if they are Catholic; that's fine). It certainly isn't your place or mine to tell a woman she should keep the baby and die.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: totalcommand
My argument is as much philisophical as legal. Something does not exist as a separate entity, in my opinion, until it has fully reached the ability to exist separately from the mother. It's pretty simple, so maybe it sounds like a legal argument. But you probably know by now, I rarely use legal arguments, and this isn't one of those cases.

The determining of when the fetus becomes a separate entity, however, does become a legal issue. I won't delve into that here, but I provided a partial argument above because I thought you might try to counter something that I won't argue over.

When I have more time, I will put here an argument as to why even if the fetus becomes a separate entity, yet unborn, abortion is still an acceptable option.
OK, then the real question is how you define a distinct 'entity'. Hypothesized methods that immediately come to mind are genetic uniqueness, viability (able to survive outside the host), and independent consciousness. Feel free to suggest others, but these are the three that I most often see here.

Clearly, a zygote/embryo/fetus is genetically distinct from the moment of conception. If it's not, then it never would be - hopefully we can at least agree on this point.

Viability does not mitigate the necessity of substantial effort and support of another to continue the life of the entity. Thus, the only logical distinctions between an entity that is considered 'viable' is that it is spatially unique from its host, and that the host need not be the one who continues to lend support to the entity. Hopefully we can agree that spatial uniqueness is much less conclusive in determining distinction of an entity than is genetic uniqueness, as this would imply that any cell that falls from your body is a distinct entity. I'm not sure how the second criterion (that the caregiver need not be the original host) can be construed as determinant in whether or not an entity is distinct.

The independent consciousness, the point made repeatedly by many, could be a valid criterion. However, as I've mentioned many times before, it is impossible to quantify. Thus, using this as a basis for determining what is or is not alive is open to completely subjective interpretation. For example, what comprises consciousness? This criterion could also be used to legalize killing of those who are already granted personhood when their brain activity temporarily stops (note that stopping brain activity is part of several medical treatments).

Of these three, I can only conclude that genetic distinction is sufficient cause for the granting of personhood.
Oftentimes we have to treat the symptoms when we cannot find the cure. Think of it as abdominal pain; doctors usually have no idea what the cause is, but treat the symptoms (pain, dehydration) to alleviate the feelings the patient has. In an analagous way, no one can come even close to telling what causes people to shoot other people, what malfunction there is in their brain that tells them not to value human life. When we cannot find the true sources of problems, we are forced to treat the symptoms; and even when we find the true source of problems, we treat both the problem and the symptoms. Especially where we are concerned with human life, we should treat both.
Often, however, treating the symptoms without knowing the underlying cause of the malady causes more damage than the malady itself. If you take the pistol away from the old woman, you have just made her the subject of any person of greater physical stature or ability. Now, instead of worrying about someone having a bigger gun than you, you must worry about anyone who has better fighting skills or physical size. The firearm has had such a significant impact in history specifically because it places those of dissimilar physical stature on an equal playing field. This enables a return to domination via brute force. I'm not sure how else to explain it, other than what you're suggesting amounts to discrimination based on physique.
 

imported_tss4

Golden Member
Jun 30, 2004
1,607
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard

The independent consciousness, the point made repeatedly by many, could be a valid criterion. However, as I've mentioned many times before, it is impossible to quantify. Thus, using this as a basis for determining what is or is not alive is open to completely subjective interpretation. For example, what comprises consciousness? This criterion could also be used to legalize killing of those who are already granted personhood when their brain activity temporarily stops (note that stopping brain activity is part of several medical treatments).

Of these three, I can only conclude that genetic distinction is sufficient cause for the granting of personhood.

First of all, excellent post about the legal arguement for abortion.

Secondly, refering to what you said here about defining a person by independent consciousness as the criteria for terminating the life of those that temporarily have their brain activity stopped, its not based on whether its currently conscious... its based on whether the brain is currently capable of conscious thought. An early fetus is not, a person undergoing a medical procedure is. This also might have implications into the Terry Schiva case (sorry to go there again) since she was not capable of conscous thought anymore due to the severe brain damage she had sustained (as opposed to someone simply in a coma, in which the brain can become completely conscous again). I think as science better understands the functionality of the brain, we'll get a better idea of exactly when conscousness is acheived. Of course, this is only relevant if you believe that a person is more than just a petry dish of unique human DNA.
 

totalcommand

Platinum Member
Apr 21, 2004
2,487
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Furthermore, I believe that every law-abiding citizen has the potential to become a criminal. People who seem perfectly normal burst out into office shootings. If you hand everyone a gun, they'll kill the office shooter with minimal damage (meaning a few injured people, except if it's an AK-47 or RPG). But if you have a chance to keep the gun out of that person's hands, you'll avoid much of the damage.

Keeping high-powered guns out of citizens hands can decrease un-premeditated murder. And for premeditated murder, as I said earlier, if the criminals want to kill you, they will find a way to kill you whether you have the gun or not.
Every citizen has the potential to become a suicide bomber too. Are you going to take toilet cleaner off the shelves, since it can be used to make bombs? You cannot predict the potentiality of a situation involving human behavior with the degree of certainty that you're suggesting, nor do I believe that outlawing firearms will make it any more difficult for criminals to find a gun when they want it - it would likely just make it slightly more expensive for them to do so, as in the case of illegal drugs. Obviously, illegal drugs still run rampant on the streets. However, this wasn't really my point. My point is that if a criminal has a knife and tries to kill me and I have a gun, then I am in a much better position, even if he's well-trained in knife fighting. If he has a gun and I have a gun, I'm in a much better position than if I were unarmed or armed with a knife. A gun is an equalizer that allows society's most vulnerable to be protected from its least vulnerable.

Your argument is also predicated on potentiality - the idea that a criminal would have a potential to cause increased harm should the citizen not have a gun. I just got out of pchem class, so I'll give you an analogy. For the actions of single particles, we cannot precisely what the action of the particle will be. Similarly, we cannot know exactly what a single person will do at any given time. But, we can stochastically determine the actions of groups of many particles, to give probabilities.

If we make it extremely difficult to obtain guns, we can probabilistically lower the chance that a criminal, or potential criminal (unpremeditated), will commit a murder, among a large group of people.

If we give every person a gun, we can probabilistically lower the amount of damage caused by a criminal, but cannot do anything about the potential criminals who would commit unpremeditated murder. Moreover, you conceded that if a criminal wants to commit a premeditated murder, he or she will find a way, regardless of whether you have a gun or not. Thus, giving everyone a gun does not clearly lower the potential for premeditated murders, and does nothing to prevent in the heat of the moment unpremeditated murders. On the other hand, taking guns away, in theory, does not clearly lower the potential for premeditated murders, but lowers the potential for unpremeditated murders. Substitute probability for potential if you wish.
Originally posted by: totalcommand
My argument is as much philisophical as legal. Something does not exist as a separate entity, in my opinion, until it has fully reached the ability to exist separately from the mother. It's pretty simple, so maybe it sounds like a legal argument. But you probably know by now, I rarely use legal arguments, and this isn't one of those cases.

The determining of when the fetus becomes a separate entity, however, does become a legal issue. I won't delve into that here, but I provided a partial argument above because I thought you might try to counter something that I won't argue over.

When I have more time, I will put here an argument as to why even if the fetus becomes a separate entity, yet unborn, abortion is still an acceptable option.
OK, then the real question is how you define a distinct 'entity'. Hypothesized methods that immediately come to mind are genetic uniqueness, viability (able to survive outside the host), and independent consciousness. Feel free to suggest others, but these are the three that I most often see here.

Viability

Clearly, a zygote/embryo/fetus is genetically distinct from the moment of conception. If it's not, then it never would be - hopefully we can at least agree on this point.

It is clear.

Viability does not mitigate the necessity of substantial effort and support of another to continue the life of the entity. Thus, the only logical distinctions between an entity that is considered 'viable' is that it is spatially unique from its host, and that the host need not be the one who continues to lend support to the entity. Hopefully we can agree that spatial uniqueness is much less conclusive in determining distinction of an entity than is genetic uniqueness, as this would imply that any cell that falls from your body is a distinct entity. I'm not sure how the second criterion (that the caregiver need not be the original host) can be construed as determinant in whether or not an entity is distinct.

It is not effort and support that I use as criteria to separate the mother from the unborn fetus. Nor is it spatial uniqueness. It is the physiological connections between the mother and the child.

As a side note, the conclusivity of determining distinction does not determine whether or not we should use one distinction over another; it is the qualities of the distinctions as related to the issue at hand that does.

Regardless, I believe the distinction is very clear, or "conclusive". Cells that fall from your body do not have the potential for life.

A thing, for the purpose of this discussion, becomes distinct when it is not physiologically dependent on the mother, and has the potential for separate consciousness in the first place. We therefore not concerned with somatic cells. Let me make it clear, however. It is not consciousness alone that makes the distinction, it is physiological separation and viability of the fetus. That is, the fetus is considered separate when it has consciousness, physiological separation, and independent viability. However, since we would agree that physiological separation and independent viability require consciousness, these are the overriding factors.

The advance of medical technology makes it possible for the fetus to exist separately and remain viable earlier and earlier. My distinction is flexible to this. This begs the question of whether should we be able to make, say a 2 week old fetus independently viable, that those fetuses should be protected from abortion. Here, we would have to fall back to the consciousness criterion; but such medical advances are very very far off, if not impossible.

In my opinion, these distinctions only matter when the mother has the abortion out of free choice, and is not forced to because of medical dangers, etc.

When the mother's life is at stake, I would support abortion at all times.

The independent consciousness, the point made repeatedly by many, could be a valid criterion. However, as I've mentioned many times before, it is impossible to quantify. Thus, using this as a basis for determining what is or is not alive is open to completely subjective interpretation. For example, what comprises consciousness? This criterion could also be used to legalize killing of those who are already granted personhood when their brain activity temporarily stops (note that stopping brain activity is part of several medical treatments).

It's not my criterion.
Of these three, I can only conclude that genetic distinction is sufficient cause for the granting of personhood.

Viability is sufficient cause. Emotional, financial, etc. efforts do not determine this viability. It is purely a medical. A fetus that is physiologically separated from the mother must be able to survive on its own, using all possible medical advances available at the time.

Oftentimes we have to treat the symptoms when we cannot find the cure. Think of it as abdominal pain; doctors usually have no idea what the cause is, but treat the symptoms (pain, dehydration) to alleviate the feelings the patient has. In an analagous way, no one can come even close to telling what causes people to shoot other people, what malfunction there is in their brain that tells them not to value human life. When we cannot find the true sources of problems, we are forced to treat the symptoms; and even when we find the true source of problems, we treat both the problem and the symptoms. Especially where we are concerned with human life, we should treat both.
Often, however, treating the symptoms without knowing the underlying cause of the malady causes more damage than the malady itself. If you take the pistol away from the old woman, you have just made her the subject of any person of greater physical stature or ability. Now, instead of worrying about someone having a bigger gun than you, you must worry about anyone who has better fighting skills or physical size. The firearm has had such a significant impact in history specifically because it places those of dissimilar physical stature on an equal playing field. This enables a return to domination via brute force. I'm not sure how else to explain it, other than what you're suggesting amounts to discrimination based on physique.

That's incorrect. Treating the symptoms in this case would not cause additional damage, it would decrease damage as I have shown earlier. It really has nothing to do with discrimination based on physique, that's a red herring.

Is the purpose of a gun to give physically disadvantaged people a level playing field? We have already agreed that the criminal will find a way to kill the person regardless of whether the person has a gun if the criminal wants to really try. Kids are among the most vulnerable people in our society. Should they be allowed to carry guns also? Training people to use guns does not put them on a level playing field. The criminal with a gun (since we say he can easily obtain it) will be much more skilled with it than the woman. What makes you think the criminal will run away?

We place trust in our police force to prevent crimes, and to be a deterrent. The reason the police exist is that citizens do not trust other citizens to police themselves or control themselves; in other words, the very reason the police exist is to prevent domination based on brute force.
 

mordantmonkey

Diamond Member
Dec 23, 2004
3,075
5
0
I'd just like to say i'm pro-death.
i have no problem with the death penalty. some people are not capable of respecting the rights of others or are just psychopathic. unfortunately our justice system is in no shape to be dealing out death sentences. there ARE cases of innocent people being let off of death row. when we get adequate public defenders then maybe i could see the death penalty as being legitimate.

And as for abortion. A woman's body can miscarry or get rid of fertilized eggs, i mean babies, when it is not ready or conditions are not right. I think a woman's mind should have the same right to rid her body of a fertilized egg or fetus when she is not psychologically ready. problem is pro-lifers view miscarriages as an act of god. I don't.
 

arsbanned

Banned
Dec 12, 2003
4,853
0
0
Originally posted by: Starbuck1975
I was merely pointing out the correct spelling, my excitable friend. I'm not typically a spelling Nazi, but this time I was.

You feel that the U.S. has "mitigated civilian casualties" in Iraq. In fact, the U.S has killed plenty of civilians, imprisoned others (torturing them to boot) and probably "disappeared" plenty. I don't see that as mitigatng civilian casalties. Just stick to the facts and drop the shrill responses and maybe we can get somewhere.
Correct spelling or correct meaning? How can you ask me to stick to the facts when you provide none of your own to counter my discussion points?

Correct spelling.
That was an easy one. ;)

Perhaps I should clarify what mitigating civilian casualties means in a combat environment. Firebombing Dresden was not mitigating casualties...indiscriminately carpet bombing German cities was not mitigating civilian casualties...dropping atomic bombs on Nagasaki and Hiroshima was not mitigating civilian casualties, although one could argue that the use of the atomic bomb against those cities eliminated the need for a far more bloody scenario involving the invasion of the island of Japan...napalming Vietnamese villages was not mitigating civilian casualties.

Well, see, you lost me already since WWII was actually a legal, necessary war, whereas Iraq lacks legitimacy (for instance, where are the WMD; you know, the STATED reason we attacked Iraq in the first place?)

Taken within the context of what has gone on during other wars in urban environments, the civilian casualty toll in Iraq has been statistically small...granted, had we not invaded in the first place, the Iraqi population would not be sustaining casualties from this war, but the casualties that have occurred are fairly concentrated to insurgent strongholds, and the greatest cause of Iraqi civilian casualties in the past few months, perhaps even the last year, have been caused by the Iraqi insurgents themselves.

I am sticking to the facts, and the fact is, as hard as this may be for you to accept, that American soldiers do not relish the thought of mowing down civilians...granted there are exceptions, and we have certainly received reports of incidents in which American soldiers did not act in a professonal manner or in accordance with the Geneva convention...then again, during times of war, I have not heard of any army or military force that has not engaged in inhumane or barbaric behavior...this does not excuse such behavior, but it is an unfortunate aspect of war, and the darker side of human nature, especially in situations where you dehumanize your enemy.

That being said, on the grand scale of invading armies, the U.S. military has done a fairly decent job of doing what it can to minimize Iraqi civilian casualties.
Umm, even the sanctions we imposed on them killed thousands (mostly children). Add to that the fact that either Bush's lies or faulty, wrong, absolutely erroneous intelligence (according to a prominent REPUBLICAN senator) put us in an unnecessary war, there needn't have been nearly as many casualties as there has been.
So, to sum up, IMO, there have been FAR too many casualties and I think it's a fvcking disgrace!
Back to your regularly scheduled topic. :D