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What are the crimes with no victims?

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Originally posted by: DaWhim
beside inside trading, can anyone think of one?

If you think insider trading has no victims, I suggest staying as far away as possible from anything even remotely related to Wall Street.

 
Originally posted by: JS80

You purchase stocks from market makers...

yes, there is a middle man, but some of those stocks were sold to the market maker by your shareholder in anticipation of this transaction.

you wouldn't let the guy come into your living room and purchase the stocks from you right there, so why is it ok if there is a middle man?
 
Originally posted by: JS80
Originally posted by: Tom
Originally posted by: DaWhim
beside inside trading, can anyone think of one?


how is that a victimless crime ?

There is no victim in insider trading. The law is there to prevent rampant speculation and prevent cheats from pretending to have insider information. Also the whole "fair" thing.

Ummm, everyone NOT in the know is the victim. Why should the insiders be allowed to profit. If this was the case, then all the rich would just become richer, the poor poorer and... oh wait...
 
Originally posted by: J0hnny
Originally posted by: JS80
Originally posted by: Tom
Originally posted by: DaWhim
beside inside trading, can anyone think of one?


how is that a victimless crime ?

There is no victim in insider trading. The law is there to prevent rampant speculation and prevent cheats from pretending to have insider information. Also the whole "fair" thing.

Ummm, everyone NOT in the know is the victim. Why should the insiders be allowed to profit. If this was the case, then all the rich would just become richer, the poor poorer and... oh wait...

when there is good news, the market will respond to it by going up. the inside trader acts before everyone else. who is the victim?
 
Originally posted by: JS80
Originally posted by: mercanucaribe
Originally posted by: RichardE
Originally posted by: DaWhim
beside inside trading, can anyone think of one?

Victims of inside trading are the people who buy the stocks you know are going to crash that you sold them.

Along the same lines of a car dealer who sells you a car he knows is going to break down in a week.

:thumbsup:

When you sell your stock, you don't sell to an individual, you sell them to a market maker. Individuals shareholders are not direcly affected by someone who sells with insider knowledge.

I've come to a revelation that most of you are ignorant on not only just the technical and operating details of the stock market, you are ignorant on financial matters (including economics) as a whole. I feel like I'm trying to teach a mentally retarded person multiplications. I will try to ignore most of your ignorant posts on financial matters going forward.


First of all you are just wrong.

1. Not all stock transactions involve a market maker.

2. If a person trades stock using insider information, somebody is going to lose money they wouldn't have if the insider trading didn't occur. Whether the transaction involved a market maker or not, makes no difference. The loss will either be born by the market maker, or more likely passed on directly to a future purchaser.

You don't seem to have any grasp at all of markets or economics. There is no magic way to make money. There is absolutely no wealth created or lost when people transfer ownership of property, which is all stock trading is. If one person avoids losing money by using insider information, somebody else is going to lose the money, unfairly under the rules of the game. That is the definition of a victim.
 
There are no "victimless" crimes. In someone's opinion, a "victim" can always be found, even if the victim does not agree that he is a victim. For example, someone said earlier that the victim of a marijuana crime is the user himself. Ridiculous, but unfortunately arguable. There are, however, consensual crimes. This brings common sense and rational thought back into the argument, and prevents a biased 3rd-party from declaring victimhood on any of the actual parties involved. If the "victim" consents, then no crime exists. For example, if you knowingly consented to give someone $100 bucks, then you could not be a robbery victim, could you? A drug user cannot be both a victim and a criminal at the same time, he consented to his own actions. Insider trading does have non-consenting victims, the stockholder didn't know his transactions were being manipulated unfairly by someone in a position to acquire secret knowledge that he could not attain. Prostitution is a consensual crime, an otherwise legitimate business transaction between 2 consenting adults. See how it all fits into place...
 
Originally posted by: Looney
Originally posted by: MercenaryForHire
Masturbation? 😛

If that's a crime, then i better go on the lamb... because i'll be in for multiple life sentences.



lol. On the lam? If you go on the lamb that'll land you in the klink pretty damn fast.
 
Originally posted by: dxkj
Originally posted by: Zim Hosein
What are the crimes with no victims?

How can a crime be committed w/ out a victim?

because laws are ****** up

how about pirating

i listened to an mp3 the other day, twice... i wouldnt have bought the song to listen it, but it was just sitting there

who is the victim?

You are retarded.
 
Originally posted by: ahurtt
Originally posted by: dxkj
Originally posted by: Zim Hosein
What are the crimes with no victims?

How can a crime be committed w/ out a victim?

because laws are ****** up

how about pirating

i listened to an mp3 the other day, twice... i wouldnt have bought the song to listen it, but it was just sitting there

who is the victim?

You are retarded.

QFT
 
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