Time to get rid of the takeout slide at second base

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Red Storm

Lifer
Oct 2, 2005
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There already is a rule on the books that an umpire can use his judgment and declare it illegal, which is why they are able to hand down a punishment like they did.

Is the punishment handed out post-game? Or is the punishment a penalty enforced in game at the time of the call?
 

Phoenix86

Lifer
May 21, 2003
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Is the punishment handed out post-game? Or is the punishment a penalty enforced in game at the time of the call?

If they are ruled out of the baseline it's an automatic out. The punishments handed out afterwards are for un-sportsman like penalties. The problem is, it's rarely ruled out of the baseline, because they are often still in the baseline.

I went back to the video to grab a pic to demonstrate he's (arguably) still in the baseline, but.... "Video is no longer available", article is still there.

WTF.

edit:
m7CEShy.gif


Anyways, here's a gif of it, is he clearly outside the 3' baseline?
 
Last edited:

lupi

Lifer
Apr 8, 2001
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It's a crappy rule in the rulebook, you want to enforce something make the rule better (and while we're out it, get rid of the in the neighborhood shit), but to now grandstand and suspend is twice as fucking retarded.
 

Phoenix86

Lifer
May 21, 2003
14,644
10
81
It's a crappy rule in the rulebook, you want to enforce something make the rule better (and while we're out it, get rid of the in the neighborhood shit), but to now grandstand and suspend is twice as fucking retarded.

Rule 5.09 (a) (13) Comment: The objective of this rule is to penalize the offensive team for deliberate, unwarranted, unsportsmanlike action by the runner in leaving the baseline for the obvious purpose of crashing the pivot man on a double play, rather than trying to reach the base. Obviously this is an umpire's judgment play.

If you remove the bolded does it fix the rule? Intentionally crashing the player not going for the base should be the rule, why does the baseline matter if the intentionally go for the player?