glenn1
Lifer
- Sep 6, 2000
- 25,383
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What you just wrote is literally not one iota different than how I described your argument. I understood your argument perfectly well. You're saying "correlation doesn't prove causation" i.e. other variables besides socialism may be causing these countries to have strong economies. I get it.
The problem is that you're dismissing his observation of strong correlation as unpersuasive when in fact it's quite persuasive. Correlation doesn't prove causation to 100% certainty on its own. However, correlation is like circumstantial evidence in court - the stronger it is, the more powerful the inference of guilt, even though technically it never gets you to 100% certainty.
Let's use your chosen subject of rape to illustrate what I'm talking about. For decades, feminists have claimed that pornography causes rape. That's a hypothesis. Here are the empirical facts: over the past 20 years, consumption of pornography has increased about five fold due to the internet, while at the same time, in both the U.S. and Japan, rape has declined by about 60%. What we have here is a strong correlation, in this case an inverse one, where more pornography correlates with less rape. Yet we haven't proven to an absolute certainty that pornography decreases rape, or even that pornography doesn't increase it. Why? Because there could be many other variables which have caused rape to decline. Pornography could still be increasing rape, but five other variables are driving it down by more than pornography is increasing it.
However, the strength of this correlation does weaken the feminist hypothesis even if it doesn't quite dispose of it entirely. A less strong correlation would be like if pornography consumption went up by only 10% while at the same time rape went down by only 10%. There, the chance that other variables are driving the decline in rape is higher. But with the strength of this actual correlation, a five fold increase in the one correlating with a 60% drop in the other, it's a body blow to the feminist hypothesis even if it isn't quite a knockout punch.
The thing about economies in the world is that literally every successful economy where there is a high standard of living is one based on a mix of socialist and capitalist elements, while at the same time, the unsuccessful ones don't really have such a mix. In particular, less developed countries tend to have corrupt and incompetent governments which are not willing or able to dispense services, i.e. the kinds of things like social safety nets and guaranteed healthcare which are a function of socialistic policies. Accordingly, the correlational evidence is strong here, and hence, so too is the inference of causation.
If you want more certainty of causation, you're going to have to read some books or long articles on the subject which crunch a lot of data. In particular, you'll want to look at analyses of specific socialistic policies and see what the evidence suggests about the impact of implementing such policies in specific countries. You are unlikely to find a detailed analysis of "socialism" so much as specific policies which people often refer to as socialistic. If you find something interesting, go ahead and link it to generate further discussion.
So then success should scale with increasing socialism, right? Or you can use Occams Razor to observe that economic factors such as abundant oil wealth drives the “success” of many socialist nations like Norway and socialism does diddly squat to make like better in “unsuccessful” socialist countries. People like Fskimospy are conflating the value of socialist public goods with social welfare policies like somehow having roads means confiscatory tax rates and huge welfare state are the driver of the success.
