Originally posted by: daniel1113
Originally posted by: SuperTool
Is that your proof? It seems to me like you were the one to go with that proof nonsense to dodge the reality that the rich do get a higher benefit and use out of government spending.
I have provided my examples:
Transportation companies get direct benefit AND use from taxpayer expenditures on infrastructure.
Satellite TV companies get direct benefit AND use from taxpayer expenditures on space research.
All US companies get benefit AND use out of a labor force educated in large part at taxpayer expense.
Shareholders of such companies get capital gains AND dividends in large part due to taxpayer funded programs listed above.
Now, that is my proof. Unless you can disprove it, it stands.
This is the last time I am stating this.
FIRST: A greater benefit does not equate to a greater cost. You may very well be right that the average wealthy person receieves a greater benefit from government services (i.e., public goods). However, just because you say it's true doesn't make it true, and you haven't provided a single source that backs up your statement. Also, just because the average wealthy person may receive a greater benefit doesn't mean the same benefit isn't offered to everyone else.
SECOND: List as many examples as you want, but just because you list them doesn't make them true (once again). Feel free to backup your statements with some facts at any time, and this discussion will move much faster and smoother.