Dissipate
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- Jan 17, 2004
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Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
A large portion of the stock market at the time was purchased with borrowed, imaginary money, created by private banks operating on a reserve system. Contrary to your precious metals currency position (which you haven't mentioned in a while), any deposit institution will eventually switch to a fractional reserve system, unless specifically prohibited from doing so, because they can lend and make more money that way.
Well, thank you for confirming my previous statement. I will say however, that these banks were not private. The Federal Reserve System had been set up in 1913, seven years before the roaring 20's began. Banks cannot get away with fractional reserve fraud indefinately without a government enforced cartel. The bank failures that occurred prior to the Federal Reserve was the free market keeping itself in check. All of the owners of those banks should have been thrown in prison, not given a blank check of endless credit expansion.
When assets like corporate stocks, with a 'real' value of close to zero (basically, the 'secure' value of a stock is the actual assets of a company, minus secured debt) are held with borrowed money, which must itself be repaid in dollars, not stock, it doesn't take a very large drop in values to force widespread selling, and a precipitous drop in market values. This lead to many unecessary corporate bankruptcies, and all sorts of other problems, all without the need for government intervention.
As I stated above, it was indeed caused by government intervention.
Federal Reserve expansion of credit was a bad idea; but private banks selling stocks on tight margins was quite possibly worse.
Those banks were hardly 'private.'