Amused
Elite Member
- Apr 14, 2001
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<< 2. Why are humans born with certain tendecies or desires that are defined as sinful? >>
This is an easy question. My answer from an agnostic POV:
Many of our desires can lead to trouble if they take over our lives.
Let's use sex as an example. We all know sex can spread disease. 3000 years ago, no one knew what caused diseases, but they did see a direct correlation between excessive sex with many partners, and venereal disease. So, if you're a man from 3000 years ago who has no idea why the disease happens, but everyone who is promiscuous in your clan has the disease, what are you to think? It's obvious, promiscuity displeases the gods, and that's why the gods are making these people ill.
The same rule applies to extra marital sex. Not only did they see a danger for the spread of disease in a time when the tribes and clans needed to grow and populate, but it caused social strife as well when Jebadiah would go beat the crap out of Joseph for boinking his mate.
Finally, homosexuality was most probably frowned upon because it produced no children, and would lead to broken marriages (most marriages were arranged back then).
The whole thing boils down to the fact that our desires not only helped us during evolution, but they harmed us in society when taken to excess. Since we didn't know WHY they harmed us, we scared the ignorant into not doing those things by assuming the reason they caused harm is because they displeased the gods. Rulers, who were considered the most holy and close to the god/s, if not considered deities themselves, used this tactic to force the masses to conform.
