zinfamous
No Lifer
- Jul 12, 2006
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That is not exactly true. The DA/State/Feds have to prove more likely than not that the property is being used in criminal activity for an item to be forfeited. IE: They have to go to court to keep the items. It has to be more than an assumption.
The overwhelming majority of asset forfeiture cases are legit.
apparently they don't. This is why this article is appalling.
Granted, it focuses on two or three notoriously corrupt municipalities, but items can be seized on the spot, legally, with no recourse to challenge.
The system is cooked to the point where all of the levels of review--State/DA/Court that examine these cases depend on the funds from seized assets to pay their salary. You know that ain't right.
"hilariously," one of the major offending DA's profiled in this article for defending grossly illegitimate seizures (her salary 100% dependent on seizures) requested funds from the seizure fund to pay for her own defense in court, after a class-action was filed against her.
Appalling is correct.
EDIT:
NS1 quoted the relevant bit: the difference is between "criminal forfeiture" and "civil forfeiture." All the police have to do is claim civil forfeiture for....reasons....and they effectively file a claim against the item. Legally, the item can't claim any rights for itself. You are fucked, basically.
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