Okay, I'll say this really slow so YOU can understand. The CRA was only the start. If you READ the fucking timeline you'd see the other causes. Almost ALL were the same ideologicaly driven legislation intended to get low income people into home ownership.
Again, slowpoke, I'm not interested that you think they were ideologically driven because some right-wing writer/rag told you it was. I'm telling you straight up that you're wrong right off the bat, as shown with the following...
The big three:
Then in 1980, with the same players in power, Congress passed the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act. This act removed the state limits on interest rates banks could charge on mortgages. Amongst other things, this legislation was a continuation of the policy to get more low and moderate income home ownership, by giving banks more incentive to lend to riskier parties.
Please tell me how this act is directed at low income housing when the actual contents of the act did the following:
1) Gave the Federal Reserve greater control over non-member banks.
2) Forced all banks to abide by the Fed's rules.
3) Allowed banks to merge.
4) Removed the power of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors under the Glass-Steagall Act and Regulation Q to set the interest rates of savings accounts.
5) Raised the deposit insurance of US banks and credit unions from $40,000 to $100,000.
6) Allowed credit unions and savings and loans to offer checkable deposits.
7) Allowed institutions to charge any interest rates they choose.
8) Required banks be charged Fed Float for use of funds received before clearing between depository institutions.
And please explain what part about taking on more risk led to a collapse almost entirely caused by
bundling and
spreading risky assets in exponential fashion; as in, if you're a hedge fund and you bundled 10 risky sub-prime loans into a CDO and then sold them and hedged your bets and
hid the risk of the actual loans knowing full well they were risky, tell me again how the risk loan is the problem in the first place when any bank was free to take on risky mortgages well before 1980, and that this act did nothing to change it.
In 1982, with Reagan in the White House, and Democratics still in control of both houses of congress, the Alternative Mortgage Transactions Parity Act was passed. AMTPA specifically allowed alternative types of financing on home loans other than traditional fixed rate mortgages. Again, here as with before, the intention was to open up home ownership to low and moderate-income households by offering additional methods to finance a house.
Via Wikipedia:
"Preempts state laws that restrict banks from making any mortgage except conventional fixed rate amortizing mortgages. Such mortgages included:
1) Adjustable-rate mortgages, in which the interest rate becomes floating after a number of years.
2) Balloon payment mortgages have a large payment remaining when the loan comes due.
3) Interest-only mortgages only require the borrower to pay the interest on the principal balance for the first years of the loan."
How did this open up opportunities to low income mortgages that, again, accounted for a minority of the mortgages that defaulted since 2008? Please, I'd love to hear this.
Starting in 1995, the GSE's (read: oxymoron), Government Sponsored Enterprises, began to receive government tax incentives to purchase mortgage backed securities. This is a critical turning point in the foreclosure crisis, because later it will be shown that after HUD set goals for the GSE's to buy more subprime paper, which are riskier than traditional mortgages and have a higher rate of failure, the GSE's turned around and sold to investment banks as low-risk investments.
Except the defaults of Lehman, Bear Stearns, Washington Mutual, AIG, Countrywide, and many smaller banks that didn't invest in anywhere near a significant amount of Fannie/Freddie paper absolutely dwarfs the GSE's defaults. Since math apparently isn't your strong suit, well, I can't really blame you for not understanding I guess.
Now, you can keep insulting me all you want. You can keep insulting the author of the timeline all you want. But I wonder why you haven't taken the time to address ANY of the laws here, or any of the points in the timeline? All you have are insults.
It's because your timeline is factually bullshit, and you're boring.