werepossum
Elite Member
- Jul 10, 2006
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Two sides of the same coin, really. Advances in farming technology made it possible to produce more food with fewer people, leading directly to more people in poverty because they had no jobs. However, the relatively high cost of food before that point also led to poverty, in two ways. First, if something essential like food is expensive, each wage earner has less income available to spend on other things, meaning fewer (and less well-paid) non-food-producing jobs and therefore more poverty. And second, low productivity in food production means that the majority of these jobs must be low paid - and thus, they are the working poor. If one defines poverty as a lack of food security - a wide-spread definition prior to mechanized farming - the vast majority of people were poor even though they were employed. Thus mechanized farming largely abolished poverty as it was then understood, so that now our definition of poverty includes air conditioned apartments and flat screen HD televisions and XBoxes and automobiles and hundred dollar tennis shoes.Fact: Food distribution issues had nothing to do with poverty levels in the 50s.
Fact: Advances in farming technology during the 50s actually caused massive unemployment (primarily among blacks in the South migrating from rural areas to the Northern cities in search of employment) and was the predominent reason for increased poverty levels during this period.
Incidentally I can remember when my grandfather switched from mules to a tractor. It was in the early to mid sixties.