Louisiana now an Offical Gay Hating State - Approve Same-Sex Marriage Ban 9-18-04

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Chadder007

Diamond Member
Oct 10, 1999
7,560
0
0
Originally posted by: cbehnken
Originally posted by: Rainsford
Originally posted by: LordMagnusKain
you don't have to hate anyone to be against not aproving of their actions.

No, you don't. You have to hate them, at some level, to think it's your right to force them to abide by your beliefs. If you don't approve of gay marriage, fine, we don't all have to agree on everything.

But when you think that gives you the right to tell gay couples they can't get married, that does in fact make you a hateful dumbass.


Agreed 100%

I couldn't Disagree more. The gays think its their right to force the marriage community which is based on Religion to agree with them and take their beliefs.
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: hysperion
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: DealMonkey
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
But what motivation is there for the government to give benefits to same sex couples?
Because our Constitution requires all citizens be equal under the law. Because the people want a legal way to recognize their committment to each other. To exclude one group from the same rights and priveleges as others based on some irrational argument is unconstitutional (not to mention bigoted ;)).
It does not say that all citizens must be given access to rights as they see fit. Rather, rights are to be distributed as the majority sees fit. If the majority shares a set of values, then it imposes those values on the minority. You can impose same sex marriage on me if you can garner the majority, just as I can prevent it if I garner the majority. Saying that it's bigotry one way or the other is ridiculous.

Discrimination based on race, gender, sexual preference or religion is bigotry, it has nothing to do with majority decisions, it is to protect the individual

So your definition of bigot is= Proud to have an opinion other then yours. ?

Ni it is "discrimination based on race, gender, sexual preference or religion" which is what i posted.

You can do this with anything, so your definition of a racist = Proud to have an opinion other than yours ?

The word discrimination is the key here, look it up if you don't know what it means.
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Klixxer
No, you were trolling, sure you can leave without getting a divorce, who get's the children, the house, the money, the cars? Who decides?

Is the lone parent supposed to take care of her or his kids without help or funds from the other parent?

Explain that and i will stop considering you a troll, until you do, you are nothing but a trolling little punk.
And you're a self-righteous old prick. Your only advantage is you have more experience as a troll than I do.

You couldn't come up with an answer so you insult me? Ok.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,889
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: Excelsior
Originally posted by: ElFenix
Originally posted by: dmcowen674

Great thread, typical Neocon response of sanctioning Government to tell you what you can and cannot do.

All your freedom belong to us :thumbsdown:

i suppose you're an anarchist?

Wait...doesn't dmcowen know that the democrats are the ones who want MORE government?

Please :roll: , Tell that to A$$croft.
 

Tmax13

Junior Member
Jun 12, 2003
20
0
0
Originally posted by: Chadder007
I couldn't Disagree more. The gays think its their right to force the marriage community which is based on Religion to agree with them and take their beliefs.


And you are missing the point... you don't have to change your beliefs. You can go on forever believing that men don't love other men, or women don't love other women.
They just want the same legal rights that heteros have.

Really, how will this change the lives of all heterosexual marraiges?
Don't give me that crap about what it represents, but how will it change your marraige now or in the future?

To me, the decline of family values means teaching your children that the world only thinks one way, and is not open to new ideas, which is different than how all the haters view it, Im sure.

Get out from behind that granite ten commandments, and stop hating.
 

cquark

Golden Member
Apr 4, 2004
1,741
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: cquark
I'm glad you've realized that the issue is same sex marriage; however, Section 1 also provides for equal treatment by gender. Your right to contract cannot be restricted to a member of a certain gender.
It's not restricted by gender - both genders have equal access to marriage.

No, they don't. Both genders have different limitations to who they can contract with.
 

Moonbeam

Elite Member
Nov 24, 1999
74,526
6,700
126
Originally posted by: cquark
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: cquark
I'm glad you've realized that the issue is same sex marriage; however, Section 1 also provides for equal treatment by gender. Your right to contract cannot be restricted to a member of a certain gender.
It's not restricted by gender - both genders have equal access to marriage.

No, they don't. Both genders have different limitations to who they can contract with.

Or some people can marry the person they love, with all of the perks and responsibilities, and some can't.
 

cKGunslinger

Lifer
Nov 29, 1999
16,408
57
91
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: cquark

No, they don't. Both genders have different limitations to who they can contract with.
Or some people can marry the person they love, with all of the perks and responsibilities, and some can't.
Meh, I would guess that to be a weak argument. Some could (and will) argue that this logic would seem to allow incest or polygamy. (I know, I've used that logic myself.)

It seems than the gender discrimination issue is the only one that is truly valid. In that case, I now view same-sex marriage in the same light I view flag-burning - that is, something I don't agree with and personally find reprehensible, but still a constitutionally protected right, or perhaps just an unfortunate, yet acceptable, side-effect of living in a truly free society.

And in that same light, I view the proposed Amendment to ban 'Gay marriage' to be just as silly and uncalled for as (everyone's hero) McCain's desire for a constitutional ban on flag burning. I guess we *all* will just have to suck up our personal feelings and let "them" have their rights, no matter how we feel about their choices..
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Tmax13
The APA is hardly an unbiased group. If you actually read any of the studies that they choose out of the bunch when declaring something one way or the other on homosexuality, it's blatantly biased.

Well the APA is the authority, whether you like it or not. Just like the 'church' is the 'authority' on the bible whether I like it or not.
Further, show me one such report stating that there is any indication that homosexuality is genetic.
http://comp9.psych.cornell.edu/dbem/test_of_ebe.htm

Anything else?

Is it time for me to put my eyerolling emoticon yet?
No, the APA is an authority - one with less credibility due to its obvious bias. Its 'decisions' are merely interpretation of a very select set of data, and therefore hardly binding. Remember, psychology and psychiatry aren't exactly exact sciences. Results of such studies are, therefore, wide open to interpretation.

Your study that 'proves' homosexuality to be genetic in fact proves that it's not strictly genetic. If it were, then you wouldn't have 50% of identical twins, who have identical DNA, who were not homosexual. 50% of those with the gene for blue eyes don't have brown eyes, do they? In fact, I think this strengthens the argument that the environment is the key factor in determining sexual orientation.
Originally posted by: cquark
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: cquark
I'm glad you've realized that the issue is same sex marriage; however, Section 1 also provides for equal treatment by gender. Your right to contract cannot be restricted to a member of a certain gender.
It's not restricted by gender - both genders have equal access to marriage.

No, they don't. Both genders have different limitations to who they can contract with.
Yes, but marriage in and of itself implies the gender restriction. Simply because liberals are trying to rewrite the definition of it now doesn't mean that the real definition hasn't changed. Go find a dictionary from five years ago and let me know what the real definition of marriage is. Here's one:
marriage - the institution under which a man and a woman become legally united; the act of entering into this institution
Therefore, the institution itself limits the parties involved, while the law does not. The law is an attempt to redefine a centuries-old definition that has never included same sex couples.
 

ElFenix

Elite Member
Super Moderator
Mar 20, 2000
102,395
8,557
126
Originally posted by: dmcowen674
Originally posted by: ElFenix
Originally posted by: dmcowen674

Great thread, typical Neocon response of sanctioning Government to tell you what you can and cannot do.

All your freedom belong to us :thumbsdown:

I suppose you're an anarchist?

Only from a Neocons point of View.

all laws are the government telling you what you can and cannot do.
 

ElFenix

Elite Member
Super Moderator
Mar 20, 2000
102,395
8,557
126
Originally posted by: DealMonkey
Originally posted by: ElFenix
A) it isn't explicit what that line means in the constitution. see moony's answer of 'they can amend it' for proof of that. based on the Court's current jurisprudence, black people are more equal than women. does that really follow from the line
B) i was asking dealmonkey to do so because i think it would be good for him to read the constitution.
Perhaps I've entered the Elfie spin zone, because unless you can redefine "ALL PERSONS" and "EQUAL PROTECTION" on the fly here, there's not much to talk about.

so you're saying it is explicit and no reasonable people could disagree about what exactly is equal protection of the laws? if you bother reading supreme court cases you will find that not even the same justices are consistent in what 'equal protection' means.
 

DealMonkey

Lifer
Nov 25, 2001
13,136
1
0
Originally posted by: ElFenix
Originally posted by: DealMonkey
Originally posted by: ElFenix
A) it isn't explicit what that line means in the constitution. see moony's answer of 'they can amend it' for proof of that. based on the Court's current jurisprudence, black people are more equal than women. does that really follow from the line
B) i was asking dealmonkey to do so because i think it would be good for him to read the constitution.
Perhaps I've entered the Elfie spin zone, because unless you can redefine "ALL PERSONS" and "EQUAL PROTECTION" on the fly here, there's not much to talk about.

so you're saying it is explicit and no reasonable people could disagree about what exactly is equal protection of the laws? if you bother reading supreme court cases you will find that not even the same justices are consistent in what 'equal protection' means.

Yes, I understand there have been historical variances on how the courts implement the amendment -- I mean hell, take a look at black America's struggle for civil rights or women's struggle for suffrage, etc., etc. Still, even with all of the deviances throughout history, I STILL don't believe that you can argue with the intent of the words. ALL PERSONS means all persons. Equal Protection under the law means equal protection. How can you possibly misinterpret unless you're attempting to support discrimination in some way. As Clinton found out the hard way, you can't redefine the word "is" at your convenience.
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Tmax13
The APA is hardly an unbiased group. If you actually read any of the studies that they choose out of the bunch when declaring something one way or the other on homosexuality, it's blatantly biased.

Well the APA is the authority, whether you like it or not. Just like the 'church' is the 'authority' on the bible whether I like it or not.
Further, show me one such report stating that there is any indication that homosexuality is genetic.
http://comp9.psych.cornell.edu/dbem/test_of_ebe.htm

Anything else?

Is it time for me to put my eyerolling emoticon yet?
No, the APA is an authority - one with less credibility due to its obvious bias. Its 'decisions' are merely interpretation of a very select set of data, and therefore hardly binding. Remember, psychology and psychiatry aren't exactly exact sciences. Results of such studies are, therefore, wide open to interpretation.

Your study that 'proves' homosexuality to be genetic in fact proves that it's not strictly genetic. If it were, then you wouldn't have 50% of identical twins, who have identical DNA, who were not homosexual. 50% of those with the gene for blue eyes don't have brown eyes, do they? In fact, I think this strengthens the argument that the environment is the key factor in determining sexual orientation.
Originally posted by: cquark
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: cquark
I'm glad you've realized that the issue is same sex marriage; however, Section 1 also provides for equal treatment by gender. Your right to contract cannot be restricted to a member of a certain gender.
It's not restricted by gender - both genders have equal access to marriage.

No, they don't. Both genders have different limitations to who they can contract with.
Yes, but marriage in and of itself implies the gender restriction. Simply because liberals are trying to rewrite the definition of it now doesn't mean that the real definition hasn't changed. Go find a dictionary from five years ago and let me know what the real definition of marriage is. Here's one:
marriage - the institution under which a man and a woman become legally united; the act of entering into this institution
Therefore, the institution itself limits the parties involved, while the law does not. The law is an attempt to redefine a centuries-old definition that has never included same sex couples.

Again you forgot the "for life" part, society has already stepped away from the biblical definition and societys definition has changed many times.

You cannot use the biblical definition when it isn't even being used as it is.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Again you forgot the "for life" part, society has already stepped away from the biblical definition and societys definition has changed many times.

You cannot use the biblical definition when it isn't even being used as it is.
That definition is taken from a dictionary, not a bible, nor does it say 'for life' anywhere in the definition. Libs are trying to change the definition to suit them, thereby validating some of the arguments that we are bigots trying to restrict rights rather than simply applying rights as they were intended.
 

Tmax13

Junior Member
Jun 12, 2003
20
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
No, the APA is an authority - one with less credibility due to its obvious bias. Its 'decisions' are merely interpretation of a very select set of data, and therefore hardly binding. Remember, psychology and psychiatry aren't exactly exact sciences. Results of such studies are, therefore, wide open to interpretation.

Your study that 'proves' homosexuality to be genetic in fact proves that it's not strictly genetic. If it were, then you wouldn't have 50% of identical twins, who have identical DNA, who were not homosexual. 50% of those with the gene for blue eyes don't have brown eyes, do they? In fact, I think this strengthens the argument that the environment is the key factor in determining sexual orientation.

Well, if you read the post well, he asked for research showing any indication of a genetic link, because his pastor told him there isnt any. Like any good Anandtech poster, I googled and found thousands of such studies, but only posted the first one. I didn't have time to filter and find the strongest study, but he was asking for 'any'. The study is one of many that puts the pieces of the puzzle. It basically says that if one twin is homosexual, the other will have a greater chance of being homosexual, showing a genetic link. Using scientific logic, you can see whats coming next.

And the APA is the identified standard for mental health disorders in this country. There are no others, and the standard used in Europe is not that dissimilair, and probably less reserved. Oh wait, you count the bible as the other mental health standard, dont you? Yeah, something written 2000 years ago doesnt really have the depth or scope of understanding of the human brain to be a true scientific standard.
The brain isnt an exact science yet, but our understanding is evolving (get it..? evolution) and 50 yrs ago we thought homosexuality was a disorder, and now more is known about the brain. Just as 50 yrs ago we thought schizophrenia and autism were the same, and now we know otherwise.

Know what? The sky is not blue, and the world is not round. Live in your own little world, cause god forbid you try to understand something that is 'different'. Its much easier to deny its existance.:disgust:
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Again you forgot the "for life" part, society has already stepped away from the biblical definition and societys definition has changed many times.

You cannot use the biblical definition when it isn't even being used as it is.
That definition is taken from a dictionary, not a bible, nor does it say 'for life' anywhere in the definition. Libs are trying to change the definition to suit them, thereby validating some of the arguments that we are bigots trying to restrict rights rather than simply applying rights as they were intended.

And the definition in the dictionary is taken from WHERE?

From dictionary.com:


was instituted in Paradise when man was in innocence (Gen. 2:18-24). Here we
have its original charter, which was confirmed by our Lord, as the basis on
which all regulations are to be framed (Matt. 19:4, 5). It is evident that
monogamy was the original law of marriage (Matt. 19:5; 1 Cor. 6:16). This law
was violated in after times, when corrupt usages began to be introduced (Gen.
4:19; 6:2). We meet with the prevalence of polygamy and concubinage in the
patriarchal age (Gen. 16:1-4; 22:21-24; 28:8, 9; 29:23-30, etc.). Polygamy was
acknowledged in the Mosaic law and made the basis of legislation, and continued
to be practised all down through the period of Jewish histroy to the Captivity,
after which there is no instance of it on record. It seems to have been the
practice from the beginning for fathers to select wives for their sons (Gen.
24:3; 38:6). Sometimes also proposals were initiated by the father of the
maiden (Ex. 2:21). The brothers of the maiden were also sometimes consulted
(Gen. 24:51; 34:11), but her own consent was not required. The young man was
bound to give a price to the father of the maiden (31:15; 34:12; Ex. 22:16, 17;
1 Sam. 18:23, 25; Ruth 4:10; Hos. 3:2) On these patriarchal customs the Mosaic
law made no change. In the pre-Mosaic times, when the proposals were accepted
and the marriage price given, the bridegroom could come at once and take away
his bride to his own house (Gen. 24:63-67). But in general the marriage was
celebrated by a feast in the house of the bride's parents, to which all friends
were invited (29:22, 27); and on the day of the marriage the bride, concealed
under a thick veil, was conducted to her future husband's home. Our Lord
corrected many false notions then existing on the subject of marriage (Matt.
22:23-30), and placed it as a divine institution on the highest grounds. The
apostles state clearly and enforce the nuptial duties of husband and wife (Eph.
5:22-33; Col. 3:18, 19; 1 Pet. 3:1-7). Marriage is said to be "honourable" (Heb.
13:4), and the prohibition of it is noted as one of the marks of degenerate
times (1 Tim. 4:3). The marriage relation is used to represent the union
between God and his people (Isa. 54:5; Jer. 3:1-14; Hos. 2:9, 20). In the New
Testament the same figure is employed in representing the love of Christ to his
saints (Eph. 5:25-27). The Church of the redeemed is the "Bride, the Lamb's
wife" (Rev. 19:7-9).


ALL of it has biblical references which have already been broken.

As you can also see not ALL marriages refer to marriage between a woman and a man, not even in biblical references.

 

DealMonkey

Lifer
Nov 25, 2001
13,136
1
0
Originally posted by: DealMonkey
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
The APA is hardly an unbiased group. If you actually read any of the studies that they choose out of the bunch when declaring something one way or the other on homosexuality, it's blatantly biased. Further, show me one such report stating that there is any indication that homosexuality is genetic.
Ahhhh, more spouting of dubious "facts" -- go ahead CW, show us these studies that are "biased." Give us one and point out why you think it's biased.
Hmmm, wonder how long it'll take CW to substantiate his dubious "facts" ... I can wait. Or should we just assume that you're the one who's blatently biased?
 

Tmax13

Junior Member
Jun 12, 2003
20
0
0
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Again you forgot the "for life" part, society has already stepped away from the biblical definition and societys definition has changed many times.

You cannot use the biblical definition when it isn't even being used as it is.
That definition is taken from a dictionary, not a bible, nor does it say 'for life' anywhere in the definition. Libs are trying to change the definition to suit them, thereby validating some of the arguments that we are bigots trying to restrict rights rather than simply applying rights as they were intended.

And the definition in the dictionary is taken from WHERE?

From dictionary.com:


was instituted in Paradise when man was in innocence (Gen. 2:18-24). Here we
have its original charter, which was confirmed by our Lord, as the basis on
which all regulations are to be framed (Matt. 19:4, 5). It is evident that
monogamy was the original law of marriage (Matt. 19:5; 1 Cor. 6:16). This law
was violated in after times, when corrupt usages began to be introduced (Gen.
4:19; 6:2). We meet with the prevalence of polygamy and concubinage in the
patriarchal age (Gen. 16:1-4; 22:21-24; 28:8, 9; 29:23-30, etc.). Polygamy was
acknowledged in the Mosaic law and made the basis of legislation, and continued
to be practised all down through the period of Jewish histroy to the Captivity,
after which there is no instance of it on record. It seems to have been the
practice from the beginning for fathers to select wives for their sons (Gen.
24:3; 38:6). Sometimes also proposals were initiated by the father of the
maiden (Ex. 2:21). The brothers of the maiden were also sometimes consulted
(Gen. 24:51; 34:11), but her own consent was not required. The young man was
bound to give a price to the father of the maiden (31:15; 34:12; Ex. 22:16, 17;
1 Sam. 18:23, 25; Ruth 4:10; Hos. 3:2) On these patriarchal customs the Mosaic
law made no change. In the pre-Mosaic times, when the proposals were accepted
and the marriage price given, the bridegroom could come at once and take away
his bride to his own house (Gen. 24:63-67). But in general the marriage was
celebrated by a feast in the house of the bride's parents, to which all friends
were invited (29:22, 27); and on the day of the marriage the bride, concealed
under a thick veil, was conducted to her future husband's home. Our Lord
corrected many false notions then existing on the subject of marriage (Matt.
22:23-30), and placed it as a divine institution on the highest grounds. The
apostles state clearly and enforce the nuptial duties of husband and wife (Eph.
5:22-33; Col. 3:18, 19; 1 Pet. 3:1-7). Marriage is said to be "honourable" (Heb.
13:4), and the prohibition of it is noted as one of the marks of degenerate
times (1 Tim. 4:3). The marriage relation is used to represent the union
between God and his people (Isa. 54:5; Jer. 3:1-14; Hos. 2:9, 20). In the New
Testament the same figure is employed in representing the love of Christ to his
saints (Eph. 5:25-27). The Church of the redeemed is the "Bride, the Lamb's
wife" (Rev. 19:7-9).


ALL of it has biblical references which have already been broken.

As you can also see not ALL marriages refer to marriage between a woman and a man, not even in biblical references.


Umm.. you forgot this part...

Source: Easton's 1897 Bible Dictionary

Bias perhaps?
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Tmax13
Well, if you read the post well, he asked for research showing any indication of a genetic link, because his pastor told him there isnt any. Like any good Anandtech poster, I googled and found thousands of such studies, but only posted the first one. I didn't have time to filter and find the strongest study, but he was asking for 'any'. The study is one of many that puts the pieces of the puzzle. It basically says that if one twin is homosexual, the other will have a greater chance of being homosexual, showing a genetic link. Using scientific logic, you can see whats coming next.

And the APA is the identified standard for mental health disorders in this country. There are no others, and the standard used in Europe is not that dissimilair, and probably less reserved. Oh wait, you count the bible as the other mental health standard, dont you? Yeah, something written 2000 years ago doesnt really have the depth or scope of understanding of the human brain to be a true scientific standard.
The brain isnt an exact science yet, but our understanding is evolving (get it..? evolution) and 50 yrs ago we thought homosexuality was a disorder, and now more is known about the brain. Just as 50 yrs ago we thought schizophrenia and autism were the same, and now we know otherwise.

Know what? The sky is not blue, and the world is not round. Live in your own little world, cause god forbid you try to understand something that is 'different'. Its much easier to deny its existance.:disgust:
My scientific logic tells me that twins share similar environments. If it were genetic, there should be a near-100% correlation for identical twins, not 50/50. Thus, the environment is obviously a factor, if not the factor. Before you try to belittle me on religious grounds, take a step back and examine what is in front of you. You reached your conclusions on this issue because it is the conclusion you desired to reach, not because the data supports it. Consider all the possibilities before declaring that you first hypothesized is correct - that is science. I don't have a religious stake at all in whether or not genetics causes homosexuality. In fact, my religion actually states that it doesn't know, nor does it care. The cause should not have any effect on someone's opinion as to whether same sex marriage is ok or not - whether someone is homosexual by genetics, by environment, or by choice doesn't matter - they're still homosexual.
Originally posted by: Klixxer
And the definition in the dictionary is taken from WHERE?
Taken from the 'New Concise Dictionary' under 'marriage.' I can scan in the page if you really don't believe me.
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: Tmax13
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Again you forgot the "for life" part, society has already stepped away from the biblical definition and societys definition has changed many times.

You cannot use the biblical definition when it isn't even being used as it is.
That definition is taken from a dictionary, not a bible, nor does it say 'for life' anywhere in the definition. Libs are trying to change the definition to suit them, thereby validating some of the arguments that we are bigots trying to restrict rights rather than simply applying rights as they were intended.

And the definition in the dictionary is taken from WHERE?

From dictionary.com:


was instituted in Paradise when man was in innocence (Gen. 2:18-24). Here we
have its original charter, which was confirmed by our Lord, as the basis on
which all regulations are to be framed (Matt. 19:4, 5). It is evident that
monogamy was the original law of marriage (Matt. 19:5; 1 Cor. 6:16). This law
was violated in after times, when corrupt usages began to be introduced (Gen.
4:19; 6:2). We meet with the prevalence of polygamy and concubinage in the
patriarchal age (Gen. 16:1-4; 22:21-24; 28:8, 9; 29:23-30, etc.). Polygamy was
acknowledged in the Mosaic law and made the basis of legislation, and continued
to be practised all down through the period of Jewish histroy to the Captivity,
after which there is no instance of it on record. It seems to have been the
practice from the beginning for fathers to select wives for their sons (Gen.
24:3; 38:6). Sometimes also proposals were initiated by the father of the
maiden (Ex. 2:21). The brothers of the maiden were also sometimes consulted
(Gen. 24:51; 34:11), but her own consent was not required. The young man was
bound to give a price to the father of the maiden (31:15; 34:12; Ex. 22:16, 17;
1 Sam. 18:23, 25; Ruth 4:10; Hos. 3:2) On these patriarchal customs the Mosaic
law made no change. In the pre-Mosaic times, when the proposals were accepted
and the marriage price given, the bridegroom could come at once and take away
his bride to his own house (Gen. 24:63-67). But in general the marriage was
celebrated by a feast in the house of the bride's parents, to which all friends
were invited (29:22, 27); and on the day of the marriage the bride, concealed
under a thick veil, was conducted to her future husband's home. Our Lord
corrected many false notions then existing on the subject of marriage (Matt.
22:23-30), and placed it as a divine institution on the highest grounds. The
apostles state clearly and enforce the nuptial duties of husband and wife (Eph.
5:22-33; Col. 3:18, 19; 1 Pet. 3:1-7). Marriage is said to be "honourable" (Heb.
13:4), and the prohibition of it is noted as one of the marks of degenerate
times (1 Tim. 4:3). The marriage relation is used to represent the union
between God and his people (Isa. 54:5; Jer. 3:1-14; Hos. 2:9, 20). In the New
Testament the same figure is employed in representing the love of Christ to his
saints (Eph. 5:25-27). The Church of the redeemed is the "Bride, the Lamb's
wife" (Rev. 19:7-9).


ALL of it has biblical references which have already been broken.

As you can also see not ALL marriages refer to marriage between a woman and a man, not even in biblical references.


Umm.. you forgot this part...

Source: Easton's 1897 Bible Dictionary

Bias perhaps?

Of course it is biased, the very institution of marraige in todays western society comes from the bible, it has been changed a number of times, to allow divorce, at one point interracial marriages were banned in some states.

This is just another form of discrimination, in 40 years our children will say "what in the HELL were they thinking".

These religious fundamentalists, no matter which religion they come from PISS ME OFF with their ignorance and discrimination that has NO PLACE IN A MODERN SECULAR SOCIETY.

They talk about other religious fundamentalists as bad people while forgetting that they are just the same.
 

Klixxer

Diamond Member
Apr 7, 2004
6,149
0
0
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Tmax13
Well, if you read the post well, he asked for research showing any indication of a genetic link, because his pastor told him there isnt any. Like any good Anandtech poster, I googled and found thousands of such studies, but only posted the first one. I didn't have time to filter and find the strongest study, but he was asking for 'any'. The study is one of many that puts the pieces of the puzzle. It basically says that if one twin is homosexual, the other will have a greater chance of being homosexual, showing a genetic link. Using scientific logic, you can see whats coming next.

And the APA is the identified standard for mental health disorders in this country. There are no others, and the standard used in Europe is not that dissimilair, and probably less reserved. Oh wait, you count the bible as the other mental health standard, dont you? Yeah, something written 2000 years ago doesnt really have the depth or scope of understanding of the human brain to be a true scientific standard.
The brain isnt an exact science yet, but our understanding is evolving (get it..? evolution) and 50 yrs ago we thought homosexuality was a disorder, and now more is known about the brain. Just as 50 yrs ago we thought schizophrenia and autism were the same, and now we know otherwise.

Know what? The sky is not blue, and the world is not round. Live in your own little world, cause god forbid you try to understand something that is 'different'. Its much easier to deny its existance.:disgust:
My scientific logic tells me that twins share similar environments. If it were genetic, there should be a near-100% correlation for identical twins, not 50/50. Thus, the environment is obviously a factor, if not the factor. Before you try to belittle me on religious grounds, take a step back and examine what is in front of you. You reached your conclusions on this issue because it is the conclusion you desired to reach, not because the data supports it. Consider all the possibilities before declaring that you first hypothesized is correct - that is science. I don't have a religious stake at all in whether or not genetics causes homosexuality. In fact, my religion actually states that it doesn't know, nor does it care. The cause should not have any effect on someone's opinion as to whether same sex marriage is ok or not - whether someone is homosexual by genetics, by environment, or by choice doesn't matter - they're still homosexual.
Originally posted by: Klixxer
And the definition in the dictionary is taken from WHERE?
Taken from the 'New Concise Dictionary' under 'marriage.' I can scan in the page if you really don't believe me.

There are about 93000 dictionarys on the web, why would you want to scan one page of yours?

You are too damn stupid to argue with if you cannot accept that the biblical definition of marriage does not belong in a modern society and that THAT is why society has stepped away from the definition.

You can continue to ride your high horse and keep your holier than thou attitude but it won't do you any good as long as there are those who base their definitions on rational thought rather than 2000+ year old text books.
 

CycloWizard

Lifer
Sep 10, 2001
12,348
1
81
Originally posted by: Klixxer
There are about 93000 dictionarys on the web, why would you want to scan one page of yours?

You are too damn stupid to argue with if you cannot accept that the biblical definition of marriage does not belong in a modern society and that THAT is why society has stepped away from the definition.

You can continue to ride your high horse and keep your holier than thou attitude but it won't do you any good as long as there are those who base their definitions on rational thought rather than 2000+ year old text books.
Because the dictionaries on the web can be updated to change the definition of words to suit a political purpose. That was the entire point of my posting the definition - to demonstrate that people are trying to change it to suit themselves. Sorry, but that's not how it works.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,889
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: Klixxer
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Taken from the 'New Concise Dictionary' under 'marriage.' I can scan in the page if you really don't believe me.

There are about 93000 dictionarys on the web, why would you want to scan one page of yours?

You are too damn stupid to argue with if you cannot accept that the biblical definition of marriage does not belong in a modern society and that THAT is why society has stepped away from the definition.

You can continue to ride your high horse and keep your holier than thou attitude but it won't do you any good as long as there are those who base their definitions on rational thought rather than 2000+ year old text books.

He's yanking your chain. Notice "'NEw Concise" (Neocon) dictionary.

Just feed him :cookie: :cookie: :cookie: 's