LOTR ROTK question...

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Dec 27, 2001
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Originally posted by: ElFenix
Originally posted by: Mandos
I'm well versed in Tolkien, and I know my facts. I hate to be the bearer of bad news but I'm right and j0or all wrong!

well you hadn't heard of 'first men' and it is clearly mentioned in the hobbit.

The Fellowship.
 

Yossarian

Lifer
Dec 26, 2000
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Originally posted by: HeroOfPellinor

No, dude. Dwarves and elves were allowed to go anytime they wanted...but hobbits and men among pretty much anything else weren't...but possessing the ring elevated them into that plane.

Hell, maybe I'm wrong, I've only read it once.

Dwarves were not welcome, but Gimli was.
 

ElFenix

Elite Member
Super Moderator
Mar 20, 2000
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Originally posted by: HeroOfPellinor
Originally posted by: ElFenix

well you hadn't heard of 'first men' and it is clearly mentioned in the hobbit.

The Fellowship.

that too. beorn was mentioned as one of the first men. though no one knew what that meant.
 

datalink7

Lifer
Jan 23, 2001
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Originally posted by: Mandos
I'm well versed in Tolkien, and I know my facts. I hate to be the bearer of bad news but I'm right and j0or all wrong!

Mandos has high levels of smartness! (of the hobbit variety)
 

warcrow

Lifer
Jan 12, 2004
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Holy crap, I can't beleive some of you guys are getting pissed at one another about this :p
 

Joemonkey

Diamond Member
Mar 3, 2001
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Originally posted by: warcrow
Holy crap, I can't beleive some of you guys are getting pissed at one another about this :p

these books mean a lot to quite a few people, it's important to know the story properly for those people

i'm sure you're into some stuff you would vehemently argue about and ring fans would laugh at you for it too!
 

warcrow

Lifer
Jan 12, 2004
11,078
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Originally posted by: Joemonkey
Originally posted by: warcrow
Holy crap, I can't beleive some of you guys are getting pissed at one another about this :p

these books mean a lot to quite a few people, it's important to know the story properly for those people

i'm sure you're into some stuff you would vehemently argue about and ring fans would laugh at you for it too!

True....like chicks, right?

I kid I kid.....
 

JoeFaheyx

Senior member
May 22, 2004
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i may not now computers that well, but i know everything about lortr, every solitary thing...i pretty proud...anyways, to answer an early question, frodo had to leave because in the first move he was stabbed by sting, a for ever lasting poison sword. If he stayed, he could set off the poison and kill everyone in the shire...thata why he leaves, and yes....gandolfs work was done....any more questions, just post them
 

Pacfanweb

Lifer
Jan 2, 2000
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Originally posted by: JoeFahey
i may not now computers that well, but i know everything about lortr, every solitary thing...i pretty proud...anyways, to answer an early question, frodo had to leave because in the first move he was stabbed by sting, a for ever lasting poison sword. If he stayed, he could set off the poison and kill everyone in the shire...thata why he leaves, and yes....gandolfs work was done....any more questions, just post them
I thought that Sting WAS Frodo's sword, given to him by Bilbo. When was he stabbed by his own sword?
BTW, I'm going off what happened in the movie, it's been more years than I care to remember since I read LOTR.
 

JoeFaheyx

Senior member
May 22, 2004
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actually the sword was given by the elves....its 11, and i mtired someone please correct me about the sting, i dont wanna through someone off
 

ElFenix

Elite Member
Super Moderator
Mar 20, 2000
102,402
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sting was bilbo's sword, made probably in gondolin, taken from the troll cave in the hobbit

the sword that got frodo was a 'morgul blade'
 

Vic

Elite Member
Jun 12, 2001
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Originally posted by: Turin39789
Google thinks for me
I agree with this. Bombadil is either an idle fancy or anamoly that Tolkein should have editted out, or he is Aule. As I don't think Tolkein made any mistakes with his masterpiece, I believe that he is Aule.
In the morality lessons of Tolkein, he consistently portrays evil as power that destroys and seeks always to control, and goodness as power that creates and bestows freedom.
Tom was the "master" and "eldest" and had "the power of the earth itself" and yet never sought to control or have power over anything. He had power over the Ring, while the Ring had no power over him.
Then there was the respect that was given to Bombadil by the Wise. And recall that Gandalf did not return with the hobbits to the Shire at the end, but went off to visit with Bombadil instead. Gandalf said (6:298), "I am going to have a long talk with Bombadil: such a talk as I have not had in all my time."
 

Legendary

Diamond Member
Jan 22, 2002
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To correct something in here, Gimli's entrance into the West was inexplicable, but it was believed that his entry was gained for him by Galadriel.
Also, to append to Vic's post, what Gandalf does at the end makes sense because Gandalf was one of Aule's Maiar.

Edit: Sorry, Gandalf wasn't one of Aule's Maiar, it was Saruman.
 

Vic

Elite Member
Jun 12, 2001
50,422
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Originally posted by: ElFenix
sting was bilbo's sword, made probably in gondolin, taken from the troll cave in the hobbit

the sword that got frodo was a 'morgul blade'
Yes. Sting was found in the troll's cache in the Hobbit, along with Orchrist and Glamdring, and were said to have been made in Gondolin. It can be assumed that these were weapons from Numenor, and had once been used by the men of the King of Arnor. The trolls probably acquired them after Arnor fell to the witch-king of Angmar (Lord of the Nine).
It was the chieftain of the ringwraiths who stabbed Frodo with the morgul-blade on Weathertop, and the wound would re-afflict him every October 6th. He would also feel the pain of Shelob's sting every March. But Frodo did not go to the West because of his wounds, but because Arwen gave him her place (6:273) as she would not be going West as she had forsaken her immortality.

To answer the OP's question once and for all, Gandalf was going West because he was returning west. He had originally come from the west, his work in Middle-Earth was done, and he was going back.
 

BlueWeasel

Lifer
Jun 2, 2000
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If you look at Appendix B at the end of ROTK, there are numerous timelines that list important events leading up to LOTR/TTT/ROTK, as well as the years following the destruction of the ring. Frodo falls ill on the one year anniversary of Shelob stabbing him. He continues to fall ill every few months until he leaves for the Sea.

In the chapter titled The Grey Havens, it talks about the first time Frodo falls ill. He tells Sams he is wounded and it will never heal. Sam realizes it's October 6th, exactly two years to the day that Frodo was stabbed on Weathertop. The book doesn't mention Shelob in this passage.

So which is it...is Frodo falling ill/dying because of the stab on Weathertop or the attack by Shelob? or both?

[Edit] Thanks Vic! That explains it.
 

ViperXX

Platinum Member
Nov 2, 2001
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My two questions, why is Gandalf such a wuss? Isn't he suppose to be a great wizard?

The only magic he uses in ROTK is a flashlight on his staff and a cheap magic trick of turning a buttefly into an eagle.

Final question, what is this Everlasting land all about? Is it like going from England to America? Whats the deal?