- Oct 30, 2004
A few minutes ago while listening to an archived NPR clip, I heard a reporter refer to her husband as her "partner" without ever mentioning the word husband. (I assume she had a husband and not a lesbian partner since she was talking about her son too.) I also read a local newspaper article where a travel writer referred to her husband as her "partner".
Now, it isn't linguistically incorrect to do that, but I've noticed the use of "my partner" in place of "my husband" or "my wife" more and more often lately.
So, is using "my partner" instead of "my husband" or "my wife" part of the rules of political correctness now? For years, homosexuals would refer to their partners as simply "my partner" and I would always assume that anyone who had a "partner" was referring to a homosexual partner. Is this new use of "my partner" to refer to heterosexual partners an attempt to change the language in order to mainstream homosexuality?
For the record, I'm not homophobic or anti-gay and I don't have a problem with gay marriage. However, I do have a problem with political correctness perverting our language.