Originally posted by: MrK6
If you reread what I wrote and you'll see that none of what you said addresses my comments. However, to point out the major discrepancies, I'll do some quick quoting.
You said:
Originally posted by: tm37IT READS
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion
By placing a nativity scene are there any laws?
Did congress enact a law to place the nativity?
Congress can not even write a law prohibiting the nativity 🙂
or prohibiting the free exercise thereof
Does the state or city by having a nativity scene stop others from worship?
The bottom line is that the first amendment does not provide for a complete chasim between church and state. It does not call for them to be seperate. The forefather knew that many of thoose who came to the new world did so to aviod persecution from the church and they felt that the church of england was not the answer to an individuals spiritual quest.
I had originally stated:
Originally posted by: MrK6I'm not offended by any religious expression and I think it's fine/great that people have it in their lives. However, it has no place in an effective government (a concept that this country for some reason still cannot grasp).
Religion and morals go hand and hand with some and effective leaders base their choices on faith be it from with or from what they perceve to be a higher power. Considering we live in a republic where we elect officials to make choices for us religion is going to be part of government.
Even bolded it to make it clearer
🙂. None of what you said pertained to my comment: this country is still largely "run by the Bible" and until governmental bodies, no matter at what level, rise to a higher level of intelligence, ability, and neutrality, we're still going to have these major issues. Furthermore, I stated:
Originally posted by: MrK6The beginnings of the separation of church and state ideology are in the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution...
Again bolded for easy reading, the keyword there is the "beginnings." Reading the First Amendment, intelligent members of society began to ponder, "wait, if the U.S. is supposed to be all encompassing and welcoming, we're not sending this message by having the government being religiously affiliated, whether it be official or not." Has this notion been enacted fully in the U.S.? Obviously, no, it has not. As I said, a truely effective government has no affiliations to ANYTHING beyond those political ideologies for which the majority party won its election with. Like other deviations from being completely neutral, religion ruins the effectiveness of a governing body.
In the begginings? are we being run by what they wrote and was enacted by a vote of the people or what they said before, during the debaes, or after? We are to go by what is written and enacted. Jefferson actually called for an ellimination of slavery and of course that was not ratified. Also part of the constitution allows for the states to leave the union should they want something that virginia actually placed additional provisions in there ratification which of course Lincoln decieded not to follow. Also the constitution say that CONGRESS shall make... It make no mention on wiether the states can or can not
Now I agree with the first part of this paragraph:
Originally posted by: tm37The premise of if the display is legal may come down to who paid for it. And for that even there has been no supreme court ruling on holiday displays. I for one think that the government should not be paying for holiday displays of anytype...
Exactly. However, even smaller bodies of government should pertain to the same rules as the higher/bigger ones. One cannot have different procedures for different governmental bodies or its just as big a mess, if not bigger, than it was before.
actually the final amendment within the bill of rights say that any powers that the federal does not have are reserved to the states