SiliconWars
Platinum Member
- Dec 29, 2012
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If AMD was capacity constrained, why did Intel bribe OEM's (a total that could possibly be up to $10 billion), to not use AMD products?
Surely if AMD was already constrained, there was no need for bribery because they wouldn't have been able to provide the products anyway? That's just logic so either Intel had a serious logic failure or AMD wasn't constrained as badly as you believe.
Surely if AMD was already constrained, there was no need for bribery because they wouldn't have been able to provide the products anyway? That's just logic so either Intel had a serious logic failure or AMD wasn't constrained as badly as you believe.
