Let me simply rephrase the OP's question:
Assume OP or someone else would happen to be gay, and the government or the state would not "ALLOW" homosexual marriage, would you then feel restricted in any way?
The word "ALLOW" alone should give you a grip and I can hardly see that a free society, which the US (as far as I remember) still thinks it is, would require "authorities"/law makers someone to tell what is "allowed" in terms of what someone does in their bedroom or what kind of relationships someone is "ALLOWED" to have or not.
It is a significant violation of human rights & freedom and would (IMO) go against everything the US normally stands for. There cannot be double-standards, freedom and rights are either unconditional (race, sexual preference etc., gender)..or it IS no real freedom but a fake pseudo-freedom with a bias. People in a society are either free or they are limited, there is no compromise in between.
The comparison with pedophiles really bugs the **** out of me since pedophilia, last time I checked was a criminal act. It implies sex with minors and in many cases without their consent...respective in an exploitative way...eg. when I assume that a 10 year old OBVIOUSLY doesn't even know what sex is which ALSO implies that the child CAN NOT have given consent since it is something it doesn't even know yet. (Basically, it's not any different than rape)
What an absurd comparison to homosexuality...
Your question about "if sexual attraction is a right, can it be restricted"...sorry is pretty dumb.
What is RESTRICTED is not "sexual attraction"...why on Earth would there even be a reason to restrict sexual attraction? It's not the states/gvts duty to make pointless rules of "proper sexual behavior".
HOWEVER, WHAT the state's/gvt duty is is to impose laws to prevent and punish CRIMES.
A rapist is not convicted because he is sexually attracted...or because the act of sex PER SE would be "illegal", this is not the crime - the crime is that he forcefully/violently had sex with someone against their consent. THIS is the crime.
Let me simply rephrase the OP's question:
Assume OP or someone else would happen to be gay, and the government or the state would not "ALLOW" homosexual marriage, would you then feel restricted in any way?
The word "ALLOW" alone should give you a grip and I can hardly see that a free society, which the US (as far as I remember) still thinks it is, would require "authorities"/law makers someone to tell what is "allowed" in terms of what someone does in their bedroom or what kind of relationships someone is "ALLOWED" to have or not.
It is a significant violation of human rights & freedom and would (IMO) go against everything the US normally stands for. There cannot be double-standards, freedom and rights are either unconditional (race, sexual preference etc., gender)..or it IS no real freedom but a fake pseudo-freedom with a bias. People in a society are either free or they are limited, there is no compromise in between.
The comparison with pedophiles really bugs the **** out of me since pedophilia, last time I checked was a criminal act. It implies sex with minors and in many cases without their consent...respective in an exploitative way...eg. when I assume that a 10 year old OBVIOUSLY doesn't even know what sex is which ALSO implies that the child CAN NOT have given consent since it is something it doesn't even know yet. (Basically, it's not any different than rape)
What an absurd comparison to homosexuality...
Your question about "if sexual attraction is a right, can it be restricted"...sorry is pretty dumb.
What is RESTRICTED is not "sexual attraction"...why on Earth would there even be a reason to restrict sexual attraction? It's not the states/gvts duty to make pointless rules of "proper sexual behavior".
HOWEVER, WHAT the state's/gvt duty is is to impose laws to prevent and punish CRIMES.
A rapist is not convicted because he is sexually attracted...or because the act of sex PER SE would be "illegal", this is not the crime - the crime is that he forcefully/violently had sex with someone against their consent. THIS is the crime.
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The idea of "what goes on in the privacy of your home", and as long "as it does not harm anyone else" does not hold water. There are a lot of things you can not do in the privacy of your home that are illegal.
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If they are illegal there is NORMALLY a reason for that. In the example of making whiskey you won't "hurt" someone but you commit a crime since alcohol is regulated by the state/gvt and normally taxed. If you steal from your cable provider you're also breaking the law, you're basically stealing even if you don't physically "harm somebody". If you have hours of ****sechs behind your closed doors and would enjoy endless homosexual orgies, you're obviously not breaking any laws or commit any "crime"...if it were so it would be laws based on irrationality and/or religious views, NOT based on that in actuality someone would come to physical/financial harm as a result.
And laws/rules BETTER NOT are being made on subjective/religious "moral" view...but whether an action is indeed causing harm or causing any sort of negative effect on someone. THIS is the reason why we have laws.