Originally posted by: yamahaXS
Originally posted by: damiano
Originally posted by: Fausto1
Originally posted by: dullard
It depends, are you a mathematician or an engineer?
...or a philosopher? 😉
amen
or a theologian
Or an alcoholic 😉 😀 😛
Originally posted by: yamahaXS
Originally posted by: damiano
Originally posted by: Fausto1
Originally posted by: dullard
It depends, are you a mathematician or an engineer?
...or a philosopher? 😉
amen
or a theologian
Originally posted by: Marshallj
Originally posted by: Kyteland
.9999.... on the other hand has an infinite length and the rules are debatable as to whether it is 1 or slightly less than 1 (as is so aptly proven in this thread)
It's not debatable. If it was equal to 1, the number would be stated as "1" and not ".99999...."
".9999...." is still always going to be less than one, although by how much is unclear.
Originally posted by: gotsmack
so does .0000000000000000...1 = 0?
Originally posted by: Mallow
will this thread never ever die!
Originally posted by: josphII
Originally posted by: gotsmack
so does .0000000000000000...1 = 0?
0.0000...1 doesnt equal 0 because 0.0000....1 doesnt exist. how can you have an infinite string of 0's, and then a '1' after that? This violates the very principle of infinity.
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: SilentRunning
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: SilentRunning
Originally posted by: RSMemphis
Heh, heh... It really helps to have taken calculus. I always thought "no", until I did the proof myself.
Proof I liked even more: In the space of the real numbers, you can project all the numbers from negative to positive infinity to the span of negative to positive one (or any other two numbers), because between every rational number, there is an infinite number of real numbers.
Talk about headache - but once understood, the coolest thing evar. 🙂
If you took calculus you missed the most important point. It is about approximations. You chose a dx value that is so small that your answer will be approximately equal to the actual value you seek.
I thought once you choose a dx value infinitely small, the answer becomes the exact value you seek.
<edit> I bring as evidence, the derivative.
The creation of a derivative was picking two points infinitely close to each other, but our final answer should be the exact derivative, not an approximation.
The bold statement is what this whole thread is about....wether you believe that statement or not.
Perhaps there will never be an answer, like two types of number theory. Almost like how there's several forms of geometry all based on one question.
Given a point and line, how many lines can go through the point and never intersect the line.
Originally posted by: silverpig
Would someone please post some porn in this thread so as to force a lock?
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Hey Bleeb... you said if this thread reaches 1K, you'll change your mind right?
Originally posted by: bleeb
Originally posted by: silverpig
Would someone please post some porn in this thread so as to force a lock?
Please no flaming this thread.
Originally posted by: WinkOsmosis
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: SilentRunning
Originally posted by: TuxDave
Originally posted by: SilentRunning
Originally posted by: RSMemphis
Heh, heh... It really helps to have taken calculus. I always thought "no", until I did the proof myself.
Proof I liked even more: In the space of the real numbers, you can project all the numbers from negative to positive infinity to the span of negative to positive one (or any other two numbers), because between every rational number, there is an infinite number of real numbers.
Talk about headache - but once understood, the coolest thing evar. 🙂
If you took calculus you missed the most important point. It is about approximations. You chose a dx value that is so small that your answer will be approximately equal to the actual value you seek.
I thought once you choose a dx value infinitely small, the answer becomes the exact value you seek.
<edit> I bring as evidence, the derivative.
The creation of a derivative was picking two points infinitely close to each other, but our final answer should be the exact derivative, not an approximation.
The bold statement is what this whole thread is about....wether you believe that statement or not.
Perhaps there will never be an answer, like two types of number theory. Almost like how there's several forms of geometry all based on one question.
Given a point and line, how many lines can go through the point and never intersect the line.
Infinite... in 3 dimensions...
Originally posted by: silverpig
Originally posted by: bleeb
Originally posted by: silverpig
Would someone please post some porn in this thread so as to force a lock?
Please no flaming this thread.
This thread is just one big flame fest. Some people understand math, and some think they understand it. The people who think they understand it are talking out of their asses about things they can't prove and it is frustrating the people who understand mathematical processes.
Originally posted by: MartyTheManiak
1000th post. w00t.