- Dec 1, 2000
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Disclaimer: This is completely hypothetical. I'm genuinely curious because I don't know the answer. However, I know there are a bunch of 12-year-olds who will post two-word flames. I wish the mods would delete these posts.
So, yeah. Man has sex with woman. Woman gets pregnant (e.g. condom breaks, lies about birth control, pull out too late, etc.).
Baby undeniably belongs to man (e.g. man doesn't deny it, DNA shows it, etc.)
Man decides he wants nothing to do with woman and never speaks to her again.
Is woman now entitled to sue man/ask for child support/etc.? If so, what can the man do in response?
Please don't turn this into a thread about MORALS. It's obvious that guys who do this are pretty scummy. I'm just curious about how the law handles it.
So, yeah. Man has sex with woman. Woman gets pregnant (e.g. condom breaks, lies about birth control, pull out too late, etc.).
Baby undeniably belongs to man (e.g. man doesn't deny it, DNA shows it, etc.)
Man decides he wants nothing to do with woman and never speaks to her again.
Is woman now entitled to sue man/ask for child support/etc.? If so, what can the man do in response?
Please don't turn this into a thread about MORALS. It's obvious that guys who do this are pretty scummy. I'm just curious about how the law handles it.