Originally posted by: LordMorpheus
Originally posted by: JohnCU
Originally posted by: SuPrEIVIE
according to zee mathematical conztituzion zis procedure of zimplifying zis againzt zee lawz!
How does (n+1)! = (n+1)n! then?
That works.
(3n)! =(3n)(3n-1)(3n-2)(3n-3) . . . . .
(n+1)! = (n+1)(n)(n-1)(n-2)(n-3) . . . .
n! = (n)(n-1)(n-2)(n-3) . . . .
therefore, (n+1)! = (n+1)(n!)
Yes, the pattern is to subtract, not add...
10! equals 10*9*8!
not 10*11*12! (which is what the (3n-2)(3n-1)(3n)! people were mistakenly doing above.)
Anyway...
take (3n-2)! , put it over 1
Multiply the numerator and the denominator by (3n-1)(3n)
The numerator becomes (3n)(3n-1)(3n-2)! which is (3n)!
So, the resulting fraction is
(3n)! / [(3n)(3n-1)]
which is the result posted earlier from a TI calculator.
I'm not sure I'd call that "simplified", but it's probably useful when working with series in Calculus (comparison test, ratio test, etc)