Legally that isn't true, and that's what will be argued before a judge. A person is free to refuse. All they need do is pay the "no insurance tax".
I agree that this leaves little effective choice, but politicians use any trick they can.
You may be correct.
As student of taxation theory, I'm unsure.
I'm am having trouble thinking of a similar example of where we tax the "not having" of something. All examples I can think of are fines/penalties (e.g., driving without a license or insurance).
Congress cannot change the essence of something by merely deciding to call it something else.
All taxes I can think of are levied against a value ($) or weight etc. Income taxes are measured on income. Sales taxes on the FMV. Real estate taxes on the FMV. We have excise taxes measured by FMV or weight. I cannot think of any example of a tax on 'nothing'. Penalties, yes.
Bear in mind that taxes are broadly categorized into direct and indirect, and this has an important Constitutional effect. Income taxes are a direct tax, and except for the 16th Amendment would have to apportioned (and federal income taxes are not, including this HC 'tax'). Let's assume this HC 'tax' is a direct tax (it must be to qualify as an income tax).
If so, to be Constitutional, it would seem to me, the courts would have to find that this 'tax' on 'not having' insurance also qualifies as an 'income tax'. Because only 'direct taxes' that are 'income taxes' qualify for the apportionment exemption under the 16th.
So, is it an income tax, or is it a tax on 'not having something' but measured in some way by income? If those of like incomes do not all pay the same amount of tax can it still be defined as an income tax? And if it is an income tax, is it discriminatory because people of like incomes do not all pay the same amount?
On Direct and Indirect taxes:
In a legal sense, the meaning of direct and indirect taxes changes so that a direct tax, according to the U.S. Constitution, applies only to property and poll taxes. These direct taxes are based on simple ownership or existence. Indirect taxes are imposed upon a broad range of abstract ideas, including rights, privileges, and activities. In this sense, a tax on the sale of property would be considered an indirect tax while the tax actually owed on the property would be direct.
Is it a direct tax? Is the 'not having' of something a "property"? I find that hard to accept.
Is it an indirect tax? I realize the intial reaction of many non-professionals will be that the 'not having' of something of may be a right, or a privilege or maybe even an activity. But I caution against that, I don't have time to get into the legal definitions of those words but they may not be what we think. Also, if it is an indirect tax, it cannot therefore by definition be an income tax.
I'll leave it at that and say I know enough to know what I don't know and also just enough to confuse myself.
Personally I'm rather curious to see how the courts will rule. Also rather fearful on what they may come up with. Will we open wide another door for the gov to tax us on stuff we 'don't have', or the 'activity of not doing some activity'? This is a first, and I suspect if it passes it won't be the last.
Fern