s0me0nesmind1
Lifer
- Nov 8, 2012
- 20,842
- 4,785
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That’s correct, in order for the Constitution to be violated someone has to be able to show injury or they lack the standing to claim a violation.
For example if a school district had a bunch of Jewish students and refused to provide them kosher meals they would potentially have an argument that their constitutional rights were violated. If no Jewish students were present the fact that no kosher meals were present would not be a violation despite the policy being identical.
Makes sense?
Yeah, and goodluck having that stand-up in court when your're told "This is a kosher meal" and then they proceed to eat like normal... Then you tell them "lol jk it's not kosher".... Oh the torture! You clearly abused their "dietary restrictions" that aren't actually restrictions and that actively play no part in their overall wellbeing, diet, or otherwise.