Is it insane to think that a group of people would develop racism as a response to being subjected to racism? Like Newtons third, action/reaction. I mean I cannot imagine a minority subjected to what black people have been - and not develop a similar reaction in the opposing direction.
- Question is, is it cultural relevant? Probably not.
- There is a-lot more white people than black people about in the US, as such white racism is likely overrepresented.
- As white people hold most of the power coupons they are also most likely to exercise and manifest racist policies. (as we have seen GOP do again and again).
So while I think pcgeek is in principle correct, is it a point that matters? Not really.
True racism requires at its base a core belief that one race is inherently superior to another.
Racial resentment or racial hatred in response to racism is NOT racism. It lacks the required belief of racial superiority.
There is no such thing as "reverse racism" without a belief of racial superiority/inferiority.
Let's use classism as an example: The upper classes believe they are inherently superior to the lower classes. The lower classes resent this and hate the upper classes.
Yet only one class is guilty of classism (the core belief of class superiority/inferiority). The other class has a legitimate grievance and source of resentment and believes they are EQUAL to the other class.
Sexism is another good example. Women resenting men for being treated as inferior is NOT sexism.