Born2bwire
Diamond Member
- Oct 28, 2005
- 9,840
- 6
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I don't think the size of the spoon affects it either. Even if the spoon is the size of the entire cup there is no change.
100mL cups. 100mL spoon.
Coffee cup has 0, tea cup has 100mL tea, 100mL coffee - 50/50
Take another spoonful and you have 100mL of a 50/50 mix so you still end up having perfectly equal differences, and in this case, the mixtures are the same as well.
Technically, that should only prove a less than or equal to inequality. If the comparison of the mixture ratios is dependent upon the spoon size, then one would conclude that the limiting case is when the spoon is the same size as the cups. I do not think that you could conclude that the limiting case is going to be characteristic of all cases if the spoon size was a factor.
Of course it isn't here. One can easily prove algebraically that is not the case. Specifically, if x is the volume of the cup and y is the volume of the spoon, then the final ratio of coffee to tea in the tea cup and the ratio of tea to coffee in the coffee cup both become y:x and the volumes are xy/(x+y) and x^2/(x+y) where the latter is the volume for the liquid that was originally in the cup.
The final ratio of y:x is a rather tempting answer. Its simplicity suggests that one might be able to logically reason this without explicit mathematics but if that is possible it is not within the span of my patience to figure it out.