Originally posted by: Eeezee
Originally posted by: tcsenter
Originally posted by: Matt2
Doesnt the second amendment state that in a well regulated militia, to protect the free state, people have the right to bear arms?
No, otherwise the framers could have wrote the well-regulated militia has a right to keep and bear arms, not "the people". Freedom of speech doesn't apply only to "the people" who are professional regulated government sanctioned orators.
How long has it been since you last read the 2nd amendment? It states right there that this law is for the sake of a well-armed militia, thus the ambiguity. Could they have meant that the people within such a militia should bear arms, or everyone? At the time, it was important that people be able to hold onto firearms since the militia was essentially the civilian population.
Nowhere in the constitution does the Constitution mention anything about orators, which is why your counterpoint is pointless.