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a problem i made

P

polarbear6

Golden Member
This is a problem i made when i was bathing this morning. If you find it easy , Its ok . dont abuse me for posting this ok, i just wanted to share my idea with you. I dont think its a crime to do so.

so here goes
limit n -> infinity (summation (from r = 0 to r = n) ((3r - 5n)/n)*(2n^2 + 3rn - r^2) ^ 1/2)
here summation (from r = 1 to r= n) r => n(n+1)/2
Click to expand...

Iam in no way trying to show off or be silly k.
dont post links to some other topics with some crappy physics problems ..

This might be easy i have even difficult ones. i will soon post them

If you dont understand whats summation, this should help you out link(again most of you guys know whats summation but still)

I have a solution in my mind i will share with you after some one posts.

No homework threads - Moderator Rubycon
 
Originally posted by: ganesh1
no ways ..
The answer is some trignometric functions
which i dont think can get that high

Post your solution too.
Click to expand...

The solution? It's 42, that's what the book says.
 
I just made a little correction see , I added a bracket now that should give it clarity..
The second equation(quadratic) is not in the denominator
 
Its hardly 7.. and that is taking the sine functions as 1 . so its less that 7
aww i will see for another day and i will post the solution 🙂

 
well prove how you got 42!! atleast tell me the logic..(i might be wrong , i did it only once and that time i got some trigo answer)
wait u guys made a programming loop to solve this ??(i see no way in which any one can make a program to compute it)

well a little clue that i can give is to use riemann's summation to solve this..
try to get r/n out of that expression .. and then call it x and then we can integrate it between 1 - 0

 
k answer is
(1/16)* 17(sin inverse (-17^-1/2) + sin inverse (-3*17^-1/2)) - 4 + 6*2^1/2)

k ....
I know that is not a number but cant help it ....
i got that after i integrated the function (try to get r / n every where in that function and replace r/n with x, According to reinmann subsititution rule find the definite integral from 1 to 0)
NOW I AM REALLY INTRESTED IN KNOWING HOW YOU GUYS GOT 42 ..............

 
Originally posted by: TecHNooB
I'm surprised the n term dissappears. Please post your full solution. Thnx~
Click to expand...

ahhhhhhh fk
i forgot to mention the limit 🙁
lm n -> infinity 🙁
SHIT IAM SO SORRY


THATS WHY I FELT THAT THIS PROBLEM WAS VERY DIFFICULT
please people iam very sorry
now its pretty solvable isnt it 🙁(
i unnecassrly hyped it up 🙁
 
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