a problem i made

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
This is a problem i made when i was bathing this morning. If you find it easy , Its ok . dont abuse me for posting this ok, i just wanted to share my idea with you. I dont think its a crime to do so.

so here goes
limit n -> infinity (summation (from r = 0 to r = n) ((3r - 5n)/n)*(2n^2 + 3rn - r^2) ^ 1/2)
here summation (from r = 1 to r= n) r => n(n+1)/2

Iam in no way trying to show off or be silly k.
dont post links to some other topics with some crappy physics problems ..

This might be easy i have even difficult ones. i will soon post them

If you dont understand whats summation, this should help you out link(again most of you guys know whats summation but still)

I have a solution in my mind i will share with you after some one posts.

No homework threads - Moderator Rubycon
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
This is not from any book what so ever or did my teachers teach me this one.
So you guys might find it easy. k
 

Born2bwire

Diamond Member
Oct 28, 2005
9,840
6
71
42

EDIT: Dammit PlasmaBomb! Don't you ever get tired of being right all the time?
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
no ways ..
The answer is some trignometric functions
which i dont think can get that high

Post your solution too.
 

Born2bwire

Diamond Member
Oct 28, 2005
9,840
6
71
Originally posted by: ganesh1
no ways ..
The answer is some trignometric functions
which i dont think can get that high

Post your solution too.

The solution? It's 42, that's what the book says.
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
What THE HELL
this is not in any book . i just made it from one of the standard problems.
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
I just made a little correction see , I added a bracket now that should give it clarity..
The second equation(quadratic) is not in the denominator
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
Its hardly 7.. and that is taking the sine functions as 1 . so its less that 7
aww i will see for another day and i will post the solution :)

 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
well prove how you got 42!! atleast tell me the logic..(i might be wrong , i did it only once and that time i got some trigo answer)
wait u guys made a programming loop to solve this ??(i see no way in which any one can make a program to compute it)

well a little clue that i can give is to use riemann's summation to solve this..
try to get r/n out of that expression .. and then call it x and then we can integrate it between 1 - 0

 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
k answer is
(1/16)* 17(sin inverse (-17^-1/2) + sin inverse (-3*17^-1/2)) - 4 + 6*2^1/2)

k ....
I know that is not a number but cant help it ....
i got that after i integrated the function (try to get r / n every where in that function and replace r/n with x, According to reinmann subsititution rule find the definite integral from 1 to 0)
NOW I AM REALLY INTRESTED IN KNOWING HOW YOU GUYS GOT 42 ..............

 

TecHNooB

Diamond Member
Sep 10, 2005
7,458
1
76
I'm surprised the n term dissappears. Please post your full solution. Thnx~
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
Originally posted by: TecHNooB
I'm surprised the n term dissappears. Please post your full solution. Thnx~

ahhhhhhh fk
i forgot to mention the limit :(
lm n -> infinity :(
SHIT IAM SO SORRY


THATS WHY I FELT THAT THIS PROBLEM WAS VERY DIFFICULT
please people iam very sorry
now its pretty solvable isnt it :((
i unnecassrly hyped it up :(
 

bsobel

Moderator Emeritus<br>Elite Member
Dec 9, 2001
13,346
0
0
Originally posted by: ganesh1
why not .. it has maths ...
WHERE IT BELONGS THEN

Read the forum rules and post in OT where this belongs.
 

polarbear6

Golden Member
Jul 14, 2008
1,161
1
0
this topic only has one sticky and it talks about how to search for info ..
where the hell are the forum rules.