In attempt to get this discussion back on track, let's review how we got here.
SlowSpyder said
this in post #274:
Isn't it kind of ironic that this omnipotent god created the universe in one day (though it took three days for the earth I believe... lol) and is very clear that he wants us to worship him and only him is unable to get more than about two out of every seven people on this planet to recognize that he even exists? For an all powerful god who is very jealous and wants us to worship him and only him, it seems odd that he can't even get a simple majority.
(empahsis added)
In response to the bolded part above, Rob said
this in post #276:
This is a contradictory statement. He cannot be "all powerful", but "can't" do something at the same time...like get a majority.
If he's all-powerful, he *can* get a majority, but won't violate our ability to choose.
Forced worship isn't sincere worship. I'm glad I can choose to believe in God or not.
And finally in response to Rob, I said
this in post #282:
Rational belief is a cognitive act, not a volitional one. I didn't "choose" to believe the pythagorean theorem. I followed the proof of the theorem and recognized its validity and soundness.
The point being that convincing a person through the presentation of persuasive evidence is not "forcing a choice" or "forcing belief." Your excuses do not sufficiently explain the widespread disbelief in an alleged being that 1.) knows what evidence would be persuasive, 2.) has the unlimited power to produce that evidence, and 3.) wants people to believe it exists.
Now, in light of the bolded statement above, does anyone want to guess without looking whether or not Rob addressed the
explicitly stated point of my argument?
Anyone?
Here's a clue: his response to my post is
in #283. I'll leave that as an exercise for the readers.
Rob
does claim in post #283
I am not attempting to explain this "widespread disbelief".
Now, consider his claim from post #276:
If he's all-powerful, he *can* get a majority, but won't violate our ability to choose.
It seems pretty clear to me that the reason purported to
explain the fact that there isn't a majority of believers among the earth's population is that God "won't violate our ability to choose." If I had said "I was going to go to the market, but the battery in my car was dead," wouldn't a reasonable person interpret the 2nd half of that statement to explain why the 1st part did not obtain?
If the reason that there is widespread disbelief is not that God "won't violate our ability to choose," then what is the reason? It seems clear that when
SlowSpyder noted that "it seems odd that he can't even get a simple majority," he was implying that it was a fact that warranted explanation. What is it?