Originally posted by: Train
jeeze, heres another one. Capitalism = Natural economy.
Sigh, another individual that doesn't understand the meaning of the word they are attempting to use. Naturalwirtschaft refers to a time before the invention of money. Natural economy refers to a bartering economy and this is how the first specialists obtained food for the goods they created.
Originally posted by: Train
If the all the govts and banks of the world dissolved tomorow, guess what kind of economy would INSTANTLY exist?? Yep, Capitalism, it would NATURALLY appear.
Pretty bold statement. I'm assuming you base this conclusion on thousands of years of
European history? Forgetting the rest of the world for a second, the economy that "naturally" appears is a
mixed economy. That is, an economy that incorporates ideas from several economic ideologies.
And if you are basing your conclusion on European history, then you are also lacking. Many different types of societies and economies "naturally appeared" on the scene. I would consider the most prevalent throughout European history to be Feudalism. Of course, Europe also gave rise to trade leagues, city states, and modern Westphalian nation states. In fact, these existed in Europe simultaneously and all represented different ideologies of society and economies. However, the modern nation state is the winner as it was only the nation state, and its standards and regulations, that could promote efficient commerce and sufficiently protect the lives and property of people that gave birth to mercantilism. You seem to be under the delusion that Capitalism was born before banks and the modern state, your order is reversed. Capitalism required standards, low trade barriers (offered by organized governments), and protection of private ownership which could all be provided by the state.
Before we continue this discussion any further, I suggest you read
The Sovereign State and its Competitors by Spruyt. It describes the birth of the modern state and why some form is strong government proved to be more advantageous than looser forms of social cohesion through weaker governments. It was the strong Westphalian state that allowed early Capitalism to flourish, not vice versa.
So, in answer to your question, if all banks and governments disappeared tomorrow there would:
1) first be anarchy and an immediate reversion to a natural economy; bartering economy
2) people with vast personal fortunes (represented now by gold and/or other commodities) would quickly become warlords/local royalty and we would quickly devolve into something resembling Feudalism (think fall of the Roman empire)
3) from Feudalism would arise many different types of economic and societal organizations like the city-state, trade league, and eventually the nation-state
4) the nation-state will be more effective at reducing trade barriers as it can set standards, organize armies, and create a unified currency
5) early forms of Capitalism will begin to flourish once again and we will have a mixed economy
I say this because this is how Capitalism came into being in the first place. Capitalism has always been mixed with a strong government that can protect property rights and reduce trade barriers. It's always been mixed.
Note: the above assumptions assume we follow a Euro-centric evolution and completely ignores the types of economies and societies that evolved in the rest of the world, particularly in China.
Originally posted by: Train
And you just demonstrated that you DON'T understand the "wealth is not static" fact. Because you still assume that for someone to gain, someone else must lose (the "transfer of wealth" myth), which requires a zero sum game. Just google "wealth is not static", read just about anything on the first page, they break it down pretty basic in easy terms to understand. Do that before you come back here and post. It will only take a few minutes.
Sigh. I don't assume anything about someone
having to lose for another to gain. However, I'm simply stating fact about the pattern of wealth in this country. While the overall "wealth pie" may have been growing rapidly since the early 80s (which I really disagree with, I would call it a "debt pie"), most of the newly created wealth has been concentrated in the hands of a few people.
If the pie grows by 3% this year, yet 90% of the population only sees an increase in wealth of 1%, are they richer or poorer this year than last? The problem you have is that you assume all new wealth created is distributed evenly. Even in a growing pie, wealth can be concentrated. This is called wealth condensation. I recommend you visit this topic, has wealth has been concentrated over the last decades despite a "growing pie."
I recommend you spend some time reading as it appears your understanding of economics is no more comprehensive than your understanding of history.