Originally posted by: gotsmack
what % of the world's oil is from Iraq anyway?
I always thought we could do without Iraq oil because they have oil spread around S. America, Canada, come countries in Africa, Mexico, and Russia.
Right around, or less than 10% - fluxating between 2.5bb/day (billion barrels/day) and 3.5 bb/day - of course it would likely be higher without the embargo. Iraq is the #3 producer in the region.
Thus the Russian connection - Russia is the embargo outlet for most of the iraqi oil that they are permitted to sell in exchange for necessary goods. Russia has rights to vast amounts of iraqi oil which they fear would be cancelled by us invasion.
we produce
6 bb/day ourselves btw.
There are a couple of childishly fallacious lines of thought in here:
- there is one and only one "real" reason why this action is being considered
- if there is some kind of economic benefit to us that might result from this action, then clearly this is the "real" motive
- everything that comes from an authority figure representing an ideology that I do not subscribe to is a bold-faced lie b/c these people cannot be trusted, care nothing for truth and ideals, and are ALWAYS out for personal gain ALWAYS using subterfuge and conspiracy to manipulate global events to their desires
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I know what's REALLY going on - its quite clear to me that there is ONE way of looking at this, depsite the fact that those vastly more informed are split on the isssue
Take, for instance, the previous gulf war. Were we there for the oil or to protect Kuwait?
If "for the oil," do you mean:
- to take the oil for ourselves (as was often said at the time)?
- to protect the US-friendly regime in Kuwait so the oil would still be for sale to us?
- to prevent a hostile regime from controling the oil and cutting us off?
- to use our power to protect Kuwait from Saddam as leverage to bargain for better oil prices?
All of these could be said to be "for the oil" yet there are marked differences between the thinking behind them.
You might even say that we went "for the oil" because it would have been bad for global security to allow Saddam to roll over into Kuwait and then hold the world hostage through his control of their oil production + his own, and this perspective would indicate a VASTLY different motive from the selfish one that is suggested by "for the oil."
Also, there is a philisophical point to consider here.
IF the "powers that be" had less than commendable motives for the move to repulse Iraq 10 years ago, if we really didn't care about protecting the people of Kuwait from the kind of ruler who uses chemical/biological weapons on his own people (and who thinks that the world is stupid enough to believe that an election with a claimed 100% voter turn-out and 100% affirmation was legit), YET by our actions we accomplished this protection, did the motives matter?
I.e. if an action has selfish motives, yet results in greater "good," should it be entirely faulted and dismissed? Or, even better, if you stand to benefit from an action that would also result in the benefit of another, are you a priori doing it for your own benefit, despite you protestations otherwise?
For indeed, we DID protect the people of Kuwait from living under Saddam's rule, whether that was why we were there or not.
And, if the administration says "we go to protect the people of Kuwait" and we DO protect the people of Kuwait, from what evidence can you argue that this was not the "REAL" motive? Simply your dogmatic belief that those operating within the "institution" are always motivated by selfish gain, regardless of their claims?
Forgive me for being then unconvinced, since your only argument is your dogma, and forgive me for also thinking you childish when you make claims as truth that pertain to data you cannot possibly possess and dismiss claims that are otherwise possible/probable as lies when you are equally removed from any position of authority as it is a tautology to use your own assumptions of unreliablity as evidence for unreliability.